A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis and is taking rifampin. The client reports that her saliva has turned red-orange in color. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"Your provider will prescribe a different medication regimen."
"This is an expected adverse effect of this medication."
"This finding may indicate possible medication toxicity."
"You will need to increase your fluid intake to resolve this problem."
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is Choice B.
Choice A rationale: This choice suggests that the provider will prescribe a different medication regimen. However, this is not necessarily the case. Rifampin is a first-line medication for tuberculosis and its side effects, including the discoloration of body fluids, are well-known and expected. Therefore, it is unlikely that the provider would change the medication regimen solely based on this side effect.
Choice B rationale: This is the correct answer. Rifampin, an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis, can cause a harmless red-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine, sweat, tears, and saliva. This is an expected side effect of the medication and does not indicate any harm or toxicity. It is important for the nurse to reassure the client that this is a normal occurrence and does not require any changes to the medication regimen.
Choice C rationale: This choice suggests that the red-orange discoloration of the client’s saliva may indicate possible medication toxicity. However, this is not accurate. While rifampin can have serious side effects, including liver damage and severe gastrointestinal upset, the discoloration of body fluids is not a sign of toxicity. It is a harmless side effect of the medication.
Choice D rationale: This choice suggests that the client will need to increase her fluid intake to resolve the problem. However, increasing fluid intake will not change the discoloration caused by rifampin. The discoloration is a result of the medication itself and is not influenced by the client’s hydration status.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
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The priority intervention for a client in DKA is to initiate a continuous IV insulin infusion to lower the blood glucose level and reverse the ketosis. Insulin also helps to correct the electrolyte imbalance and acid-base imbalance in DKA.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A complete AV block (also called third-degree AV block) is a type of heart block in which there is no electrical communication between the atria and ventricles. This means that the atria and ventricles beat independently of each other, resulting in a slow and irregular pulse. A complete AV block can cause symptoms such as dizziness, fainting, chest pain, shortness of breath, and heart failure.
A permanent pacemaker is a device that sends electrical impulses to the heart to regulate its rhythm and prevent bradycardia (slow heart rate). A permanent pacemaker is indicated for clients with complete AV block and rates slower than 40/min or symptomatic bradycardia.
The other options are not indications for a permanent pacemaker. Vasovagal bradycardia is a temporary drop in heart rate and blood pressure caused by a stimulus that triggers the vagus nerve, such as pain, stress, or straining.
It usually resolves on its own or with simple measures, such as lying down or elevating the legs. Sinus tachycardia is a normal increase in heart rate in response to physical or emotional stress, such as exercise, fever, or anxiety. It usually does not require treatment unless it is caused by an underlying condition or causes symptoms.
Asymptomatic second-degree AV block is a type of heart block in which some of the electrical impulses from the atria are blocked from reaching the ventricles. It may not cause any symptoms or affect the overall heart rate. It may be benign or transient, or it may progress to a more serious type of heart block. It may require monitoring or medication, but not a permanent pacemaker unless it causes symptomatic bradycardia.
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