A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis and is taking rifampin. The client reports that her saliva has turned red-orange in color. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"Your provider will prescribe a different medication regimen."
"This is an expected adverse effect of this medication."
"This finding may indicate possible medication toxicity."
"You will need to increase your fluid intake to resolve this problem."
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is Choice B.
Choice A rationale: This choice suggests that the provider will prescribe a different medication regimen. However, this is not necessarily the case. Rifampin is a first-line medication for tuberculosis and its side effects, including the discoloration of body fluids, are well-known and expected. Therefore, it is unlikely that the provider would change the medication regimen solely based on this side effect.
Choice B rationale: This is the correct answer. Rifampin, an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis, can cause a harmless red-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine, sweat, tears, and saliva. This is an expected side effect of the medication and does not indicate any harm or toxicity. It is important for the nurse to reassure the client that this is a normal occurrence and does not require any changes to the medication regimen.
Choice C rationale: This choice suggests that the red-orange discoloration of the client’s saliva may indicate possible medication toxicity. However, this is not accurate. While rifampin can have serious side effects, including liver damage and severe gastrointestinal upset, the discoloration of body fluids is not a sign of toxicity. It is a harmless side effect of the medication.
Choice D rationale: This choice suggests that the client will need to increase her fluid intake to resolve the problem. However, increasing fluid intake will not change the discoloration caused by rifampin. The discoloration is a result of the medication itself and is not influenced by the client’s hydration status.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The priority intervention for the nurse is to determine whether the client has an allergy to local anesthetics, as this could cause a serious adverse reaction during the procedure.
Thoracentesis is a minimally invasive procedure that involves inserting a needle into the pleural space to drain excess fluid or air from around the lungs. The procedure requires local anesthesia to numb the area where the needle is inserted. Therefore, it is essential to assess for any allergy to local anesthetics before proceeding with the procedure.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Referred pain is pain that is felt in a location different from its source due to shared nerve pathways or central nervous system processing. A client who has pancreatitis may experience pain in the left shoulder due to irritation of the diaphragm by pancreatic enzymes or inflammation. This pain is referred from the abdominal cavity to the shoulder through the phrenic nerve.
A client who has peritonitis reports generalized abdominal pain that corresponds to the site of inflammation and infection in the peritoneum. A client who has angina reports substernal chest pain that reflects the ischemia and hypoxia of the myocardium. A client who is postoperative reports incisional pain that is caused by tissue damage and inflammation at the surgical site.
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