A nurse is caring for a client who has severe head injuries and is declared brain dead. The transplant coordinator has spoken with the client's family about organ donation. The client's spouse states she is confused and does not know what she should do. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
"Most religions support organ donation, so don't let that stand in the way."
"There is such a shortage of organs in this country, so I think you should go ahead and consent to donate your spouse's organs."
"Don't you think you will feel a little better about the situation if you donate your spouse's organs?"
"What do you think your spouse would have wanted?"
The Correct Answer is D
A. This response may make the spouse feel pressured by implying that religion should not be a concern, which may not be respectful of the spouse's beliefs.
B. This statement is coercive, focusing on the shortage of organs rather than on the spouse's feelings and the wishes of the deceased.
C. Suggesting that donating organs will make the spouse feel better can be seen as manipulative and may not truly address the spouse's confusion or emotions.
D. Asking what the spouse thinks the deceased would have wanted is appropriate, as it centers on the values and wishes of the deceased, which can guide the spouse in making an informed decision.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Continuous IV infusion is the most appropriate route for treating hypertensive emergencies because it allows for rapid and controlled reduction of blood pressure, which is crucial in preventing target organ damage.
B. Sublingual administration is not recommended in hypertensive emergencies because it does not allow for the precise control needed in these situations.
C. Intramuscular administration is generally not used for antihypertensive agents in emergencies because it does not provide the rapid and adjustable response that IV infusion does.
D. Oral administration is too slow in onset for hypertensive emergencies and is not appropriate when immediate blood pressure control is necessary.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery is typically recommended for patients with significant occlusion of the left main coronary artery, as it effectively restores blood flow to the heart muscle by bypassing the blocked artery.
B. Radiofrequency catheter ablation is used to treat arrhythmias, not coronary artery occlusions.
C. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) placement is for managing life-threatening arrhythmias, not directly for treating coronary artery blockages.
D. A circulatory assist device is used in severe cases of heart failure, but it does not address the underlying issue of coronary artery occlusion.
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