A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The client has received intravenous (IV) heparin for the past 5 days and now has a new prescription for oral warfarin in addition to the heparin. The client asks the nurse if both medications are necessary. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
"Both heparin and warfarin work together to dissolve the clots."
"Heparin enhances the effects of the warfarin."
"I will ask the charge nurse to call your provider and get an explanation."
"Heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level."
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason : This statement is incorrect because neither heparin nor warfarin dissolves clots. They prevent the formation of new clots and the growth of existing clots.
Choice B reason : This statement is not accurate. Heparin and warfarin do not enhance each other's effects. They work in different pathways of the clotting cascade. Heparin acts quickly, whereas warfarin takes several days to reach therapeutic levels.
Choice C reason : While seeking clarification from a provider is a part of good nursing practice, it is not the most informative response for the client. The nurse should provide education based on their knowledge and available information.
Choice D reason : This is the correct response. Heparin acts quickly and is used to stabilize the patient while waiting for warfarin to reach therapeutic levels, which is monitored by the international normalized ratio (INR) and usually takes several days.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: The PR interval, which is the time from the onset of atrial depolarization (beginning of the P wave) to the onset of ventricular depolarization (beginning of the QRS complex), normally ranges from 0.12 to 0.20 seconds. A PR interval of 0.15 second is within the normal range and does not indicate an acute myocardial infarction.
Choice B reason: The QT interval represents the total time for ventricular depolarization and repolarization. The normal QT interval varies based on heart rate and gender but is typically less than half of the R-R interval in a normal heart rhythm. Therefore, a QT interval equal to the R-R interval is abnormally prolonged, which may suggest other conditions but is not a specific indicator of acute myocardial infarction.
Choice C reason: The QRS complex reflects ventricular depolarization and normally ranges from 0.06 to 0.10 seconds. A QRS interval of 0.08 second is within the normal range and does not suggest an acute myocardial infarction.
Choice D reason: ST segment elevation is a critical finding in the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction. The ST segment should be at the isoelectric line; elevation above this line is indicative of myocardial injury and is a key diagnostic criterion for ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). An elevated ST segment is often seen in the early stages of an acute myocardial infarction and requires immediate medical attention.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason : Aspirin is well-known for its antiplatelet properties, which inhibit platelet aggregation and thus prevent the formation of new blood clots. This is particularly important following a myocardial infarction, as it helps to prevent further clotting events that could lead to additional heart attacks or strokes. Aspirin's effect on platelets is so significant that it is often one of the first medications administered in the setting of acute coronary syndrome.
Choice B reason : While aspirin does have analgesic properties, this is not the primary reason it is prescribed post-myocardial infarction. The analgesic effect of aspirin is more commonly utilized for minor pains and aches, and it is not sufficient for the pain associated with coronary artery disease.
Choice C reason : Aspirin can reduce fever, but this is not relevant to its use in coronary artery disease. Fever reduction is not a concern when prescribing aspirin for myocardial infarction patients, as the primary goal is to manage the risk of thrombosis.
Choice D reason : Aspirin does have anti-inflammatory effects, but again, this is not the primary reason for its prescription following a myocardial infarction. While inflammation plays a role in atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease, the anti-inflammatory properties of aspirin are not the main focus in the context of post-myocardial infarction treatment.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.