A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis of the liver and is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is responding to the treatment?
Increased energy
Decreased ascites
Increased appetite
Decreased jaundice
The Correct Answer is B
A) Increased energy: While increased energy could be a positive outcome of treatment, it is not a specific indicator of the client's response to spironolactone therapy for’cirrhosis.
B) Decreased ascites: This is the correct answer. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, is commonly used to treat ascites in clients with cirrhosis by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid retention in the abdomen. Therefore, a decrease in ascites indicates a positive response to spironolactone therapy.
C) Increased appetite: Increased appetite is not typically a direct response to spironolactone therapy for cirrhosis. It may be influenced by various factors and is not specific to the client's response to the medication.
D) Decrea’ed jaundice: While spironolactone may indirectly help improve liver function, decrease fluid retention, and alleviate symptoms of cirrhosis, it is not primarily used to address jaundice. Other interventions and treatments may be necessary to manage jaundice in clients with liver cirrhosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Morphine 2 mg IV: Morphine is a potent opioid analgesic commonly used to manage moderate to severe pain. However, in this scenario, the client reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10, which indicates moderate pain. Morphine 2 mg IV may be excessive for this level of pain and could result in unnecessary sedation, respiratory depression, or other opioid-related adverse effects. Therefore, it is not the most appropriate choice for managing the client's pain.
B) Amitriptyline 25 mg PO: Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant with analgesic properties, but it is not typically used as a first-line treatment for acute postoperative pain. Additionally, it is administered orally and may not provide rapid pain relief in the immediate postoperative period. Therefore, it is not the most suitable option for managing the client's pain after a total knee replacement surgery.
C) Ketorolac 15 mg IV: Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that provides potent analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects. It is commonly used for the management of moderate to severe pain, including postoperative pain. In this scenario, the client reports moderate pain after total knee replacement surgery, making ketorolac an appropriate choice for pain management. Administering ketorolac 15 mg IV can provide effective pain relief without the sedative effects of opioids, making it the most suitable PRN medication for the client's pain level.
D) Acetaminophen 650 mg PO: Acetaminophen is a non-opioid analgesic commonly used for mild to moderate pain relief. While acetaminophen is generally safe and effective, it may not provide sufficient pain relief for a client who reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10 after total knee replacement surgery. Additionally, oral administration may result in delayed onset of action compared to IV medications. Therefore, acetaminophen 650 mg PO may not be the most optimal choice for managing the client's pain in this situation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Elevate the extremity: This action helps reduce swelling and minimizes the spread of infiltrated fluid into surrounding tissues by using gravity to assist in draining the excess fluid back into the bloodstream. Elevating the affected limb above the level of the heart promotes venous return and can help prevent further tissue damage.
B) Flush the IV catheter: Flushing the IV catheter could exacerbate infiltration by pushing more fluid into the surrounding tissue. It is not the appropriate action for managing infiltration and could worsen the client's condition.
C) Slow the infusion rate: Slowing the infusion rate is a reasonable action to reduce the flow of fluid into the tissues and minimize further infiltration. However, it may not be sufficient to manage existing infiltration effectively or prevent tissue damage.
D) Apply pressure to the IV site: Applying pressure to the IV site is not recommended for managing infiltration. It could cause further tissue damage and discomfort for the client and is not considered a standard practice in managing this complication.
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