A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following diets should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe?
4g sodium diet
Potassium-restricted diet
High-phosphorus diet
High-protein diet
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason
4g sodium diet. While reducing sodium intake is important for managing chronic kidney disease (CKD), a specific 4g sodium diet is not typically prescribed. Instead, patients are generally advised to limit sodium intake to less than 2,300 milligrams per day to help control blood pressure and reduce fluid retention.
Choice B Reason
Potassium-restricted diet. This is the correct intervention. Patients with CKD often have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia, which can be dangerous. Therefore, a potassium-restricted diet is commonly recommended to maintain normal serum potassium levels.
Choice C Reason
High-phosphorus diet. This statement is incorrect. Patients with CKD are usually advised to limit phosphorus intake because their kidneys cannot effectively excrete phosphorus, leading to hyperphosphatemia. High phosphorus levels can cause bone and cardiovascular problems.
Choice D Reason
High-protein diet. This statement is incorrect. While protein is essential, excessive protein intake can increase the workload on the kidneys. Patients with CKD are often advised to follow a moderate protein diet to reduce the production of waste products that the kidneys need to filter.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Respiratory acidosis is characterized by a low pH (below 7.35) and an elevated PaCO₂ (above 45 mm Hg). This condition occurs when there is an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood due to hypoventilation or impaired lung function. In this case, the client’s pH is elevated, and PaCO₂ is low, which does not align with respiratory acidosis.
Choice B Reason:
Respiratory alkalosis is indicated by a high pH (above 7.45) and a low PaCO₂ (below 35 mm Hg). This condition results from hyperventilation, which causes excessive exhalation of carbon dioxide. The client’s ABG results show a pH of 7.50 and a PaCO₂ of 29 mm Hg, consistent with respiratory alkalosis.
Choice C Reason:
Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low pH (below 7.35) and a low HCO₃ (below 21 mEq/L). This condition occurs due to an accumulation of acids or a loss of bicarbonate in the body. The client’s pH is elevated, and HCO₃ is within the normal range, which does not indicate metabolic acidosis.
Choice D Reason:
Metabolic alkalosis is indicated by a high pH (above 7.45) and a high HCO₃ (above 28 mEq/L). This condition results from an excess of bicarbonate or a loss of acids. The client’s pH is elevated, but HCO₃ is within the normal range, which does not support a diagnosis of metabolic alkalosis.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason
Diazepam IV is the correct choice for managing repeated tonic-clonic seizures, especially in the context of status epilepticus. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that acts quickly to stop seizures by enhancing the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA. It is commonly used in emergency settings due to its rapid onset of action when administered intravenously.
Choice B Reason
Lorazepam PO is not the best choice in this scenario. While lorazepam is also a benzodiazepine effective in stopping seizures, the oral route is not suitable for immediate control of seizures. Intravenous administration is preferred for rapid action.
Choice C Reason
Diltiazem IV is incorrect. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used primarily for managing hypertension and certain types of arrhythmias. It is not indicated for the treatment of seizures.
Choice D Reason
Clonazepam PO is not appropriate for immediate seizure control. Although clonazepam is a benzodiazepine used for seizure management, the oral route is not effective for rapid seizure termination. Intravenous administration of a benzodiazepine like diazepam or lorazepam is preferred.
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