A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new onset of genital herpes. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
“You are not contagious when lesions are healed.”
“This infection is spread through the air.”
“Stress can activate an outbreak.”
“Antiviral drugs will cure the infection.”
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason
“You are not contagious when lesions are healed.” This statement is incorrect. Genital herpes can still be contagious even when there are no visible lesions. The virus can be shed from the skin and transmitted to others even in the absence of symptoms.
Choice B Reason
“This infection is spread through the air.” This statement is incorrect. Genital herpes is not spread through the air. It is primarily transmitted through direct skin-to-skin contact, particularly during sexual activity.
Choice C Reason
“Stress can activate an outbreak.” This statement is correct. Stress is a known trigger for reactivation of the herpes simplex virus, leading to outbreaks of genital herpes. Other triggers can include illness, fatigue, and immune suppression.
Choice D Reason
“Antiviral drugs will cure the infection.” This statement is incorrect. While antiviral drugs can help manage symptoms and reduce the frequency of outbreaks, they do not cure the infection. The herpes simplex virus remains in the body and can reactivate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason
Diazepam IV is the correct choice for managing repeated tonic-clonic seizures, especially in the context of status epilepticus. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that acts quickly to stop seizures by enhancing the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA. It is commonly used in emergency settings due to its rapid onset of action when administered intravenously.
Choice B Reason
Lorazepam PO is not the best choice in this scenario. While lorazepam is also a benzodiazepine effective in stopping seizures, the oral route is not suitable for immediate control of seizures. Intravenous administration is preferred for rapid action.
Choice C Reason
Diltiazem IV is incorrect. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used primarily for managing hypertension and certain types of arrhythmias. It is not indicated for the treatment of seizures.
Choice D Reason
Clonazepam PO is not appropriate for immediate seizure control. Although clonazepam is a benzodiazepine used for seizure management, the oral route is not effective for rapid seizure termination. Intravenous administration of a benzodiazepine like diazepam or lorazepam is preferred.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Increasing hydration is important in the postoperative period to maintain fluid balance and support recovery. However, it is not the immediate priority following pheochromocytoma removal. The primary concern is to monitor and manage hemodynamic stability, particularly blood pressure.
Choice B Reason:
Monitoring blood pressure is the priority action following pheochromocytoma removal. This surgery can lead to significant fluctuations in blood pressure due to the sudden removal of catecholamine-secreting tumors. Close monitoring is essential to detect and manage potential hypotension or hypertension, which can be life-threatening if not promptly addressed.
Choice C Reason:
Measuring urine output is important for assessing kidney function and fluid balance, but it is not the immediate priority. Blood pressure monitoring takes precedence because of the potential for severe hemodynamic instability following the removal of the tumor.
Choice D Reason:
Providing a calm environment is beneficial for the patient’s overall recovery and can help reduce stress and anxiety. However, it is not the most critical action immediately following surgery. Ensuring hemodynamic stability through blood pressure monitoring is the top priority.
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