A nurse is caring for a client who has cellulitis and is to begin antibiotic therapy. The client has a history of anaphylactic reaction to penicillin. Which of the following medications is contraindicated for this client?

Fluconazole

Tetracycline

Acyclovir

Cephalexin

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Fluconazole. Fluconazole is an antifungal medication used to treat fungal infections, such as candidiasis. It is not related to penicillin and does not pose a risk for cross-reactivity in clients with a penicillin allergy. It can be safely administered in this scenario.

B. Tetracycline. Tetracycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, including acne and respiratory infections. It belongs to a different antibiotic class than penicillins and cephalosporins, meaning it does not pose a risk of cross-reactivity in clients with a penicillin allergy.

C. Acyclovir. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections, such as herpes simplex and varicella-zoster. Since it does not belong to the beta-lactam antibiotic class, it is not contraindicated for clients with a penicillin allergy.

D. Cephalexin. Cephalexin is a first-generation cephalosporin, which shares a similar beta-lactam ring structure with penicillins. Clients with a history of an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin are at increased risk of cross-reactivity with cephalosporins, particularly first-generation ones like cephalexin. Due to the severity of the client’s allergic reaction, cephalexin should be avoided, and an alternative non-beta-lactam antibiotic should be considered.

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Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"A"}

Explanation

NSAID use. The client has been taking ibuprofen (an NSAID) twice daily while also receiving prednisone (a corticosteroid) for asthma exacerbation. Both NSAIDs and corticosteroids inhibit prostaglandin production, which normally protects the stomach lining. This combination increases the risk of gastric irritation, peptic ulcers, and gastrointestinal bleeding.
Recent immunization. The client received the influenza vaccine three days ago, but this does not significantly increase the risk of infection. The flu shot contains inactivated or weakened virus, meaning it cannot cause the flu. The client’s asthma may increase their risk of complications from the flu, but the vaccine helps reduce this risk rather than increasing it.
Weight gain. The client has gained 1.36 kg (3 lb) in one week, which is likely due to fluid retention from prednisone use. While long-term corticosteroid use can lead to Cushing syndrome, this condition develops over weeks to months of high-dose steroid therapy, not within a short period. Therefore, the client is at a higher risk of peptic ulcers rather than Cushing syndrome.
Cushing syndrome. Cushing syndrome results from chronic corticosteroid use leading to fat redistribution, muscle weakness, skin thinning, and hyperglycemia. However, this client is on a short-term tapering dose of prednisone, making Cushing syndrome unlikely at this stage.
Influenza. Although the client has asthma, which increases the risk of complications from respiratory infections, there is no indication that they have developed the flu. The flu shot helps prevent infection, and there are no reports of fever, body aches, or respiratory symptoms suggestive of influenza.
Peptic ulcers. The combination of NSAIDs and corticosteroids significantly increases the risk of peptic ulcer disease by weakening the stomach lining and promoting acid production. The client should be advised to monitor for signs of gastric irritation, such as abdominal pain, black stools, or nausea, and may require a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) like omeprazole for ulcer prevention.

Correct Answer is ["1"]

Explanation

Convert pounds to kilograms:

Conversion factor: 1 kg = 2.2 lb

=145 lb / 2.2 lb/kg

= 65.9 kg

Calculate the total daily dose:

Total daily dose (mg) = Weight (kg) × Dosage (mg/kg/day)

= 65.9 kg 3 mg/kg/day

= 197.7 mg/day

Calculate the dose per administration (divided into two doses):

Dose per administration (mg) = Total daily dose (mg) / Number of doses

=197.7 mg/day / 2 doses

= 98.85 mg/dose

Calculate the number of tablets per dose:

Number of tablets = Desired dose (mg) / Available dose (mg/tablet)

=98.85 mg/dose / 100 mg/tablet

= 0.9885 tablets

Round to the nearest whole number:

0.9885 tablets is 1 tablet

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A nurse is caring for a client who has cellulitis and is to begin antibiotic therapy. The client has a history of anaphylactic reaction to penicillin. Which of the following medications is contraindicated for this client?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse in a primary care clinic is caring for a client. Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. The client is most at risk for developing ....... due to their ...........

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"A"}

Explanation

Correct Answer is ["1"]

Explanation

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