A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

Diazepam IV

Lorazepam PO

Diltiazem IV

Clonazepam PO

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A Reason

Diazepam IV is the correct choice for managing repeated tonic-clonic seizures, especially in the context of status epilepticus. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that acts quickly to stop seizures by enhancing the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA. It is commonly used in emergency settings due to its rapid onset of action when administered intravenously.

Choice B Reason

Lorazepam PO is not the best choice in this scenario. While lorazepam is also a benzodiazepine effective in stopping seizures, the oral route is not suitable for immediate control of seizures. Intravenous administration is preferred for rapid action.

Choice C Reason

Diltiazem IV is incorrect. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used primarily for managing hypertension and certain types of arrhythmias. It is not indicated for the treatment of seizures.

Choice D Reason

Clonazepam PO is not appropriate for immediate seizure control. Although clonazepam is a benzodiazepine used for seizure management, the oral route is not effective for rapid seizure termination. Intravenous administration of a benzodiazepine like diazepam or lorazepam is preferred.

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Infection is a significant complication of a ventriculostomy drain. The presence of a foreign object in the brain increases the risk of infections such as meningitis or ventriculitis. Signs of infection can include fever, redness, swelling at the insertion site, and changes in mental status.

Choice B Reason:

Vomiting can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), which is a serious complication in clients with a traumatic brain injury and a ventriculostomy drain. Increased ICP can lead to further brain injury and requires immediate medical attention.

Choice C Reason:

Widening pulse pressure (the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure) can indicate increased intracranial pressure. This is a critical finding that should be reported immediately as it can signify worsening brain injury or other complications.

Choice D Reason:

Equal and reactive pupils are generally a normal finding and do not indicate a complication. This suggests that the brainstem is functioning properly and there is no significant increase in intracranial pressure affecting the cranial nerves.

Choice E Reason:

An intracranial pressure reading of 10 mm Hg is within the normal range (typically 7-15 mm Hg for adults). Therefore, this finding does not indicate a complication and does not require immediate reporting.

A. Your provider will use your digital rectal examination to perform the test. B. Your provider will prescribe a stimulant laxative prior to the procedure to evacuate the bowel. C. You should begin annual fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at 40 years old. D. You should avoid taking corticosteroids prior to testing.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

The statement that “Your provider will use your digital rectal examination to perform the test” is incorrect. A fecal occult blood test (FOBT) typically involves collecting stool samples at home over several days, not during a digital rectal examination. The samples are then sent to a lab for analysis to detect hidden blood in the stool.

Choice B Reason:

The statement that “Your provider will prescribe a stimulant laxative prior to the procedure to evacuate the bowel” is also incorrect. There is no need for a stimulant laxative before an FOBT. The test requires normal bowel movements to detect any hidden blood in the stool.

Choice C Reason:

The recommendation to “begin annual fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at 40 years old” is not accurate. Current guidelines generally recommend starting colorectal cancer screening at age 45 for individuals at average risk. However, those with higher risk factors may need to start earlier, based on their healthcare provider’s advice.

Choice D Reason:

The statement “You should avoid taking corticosteroids prior to testing” is correct. Certain medications, including corticosteroids, can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, which may lead to false-positive results in an FOBT. Therefore, it is important to avoid these medications before the test, as advised by a healthcare provider.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is monitoring a client who has a traumatic brain injury and a ventriculostomy drain. The nurse should report which of the following findings as a complication of this therapeutic procedure? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]

Explanation

A nurse is teaching a client about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for the screening of colorectal cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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