A nurse is caring for a client who has angina and reports a feeling of heaviness in the chest while ambulating in the hall. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Obtain a 12-lead ECG for the client.
Administer sublingual nitroglycerin to the client.
Measure the client's vital signs.
Have the client stop walking and sit down.
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale:
A. Obtain a 12-lead ECG for the client: An ECG is important to assess for myocardial ischemia or infarction, but it should be done after immediate measures are taken to reduce myocardial oxygen demand.
B. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin to the client: Nitroglycerin helps relieve chest pain by dilating coronary arteries, but it should be given only after the client is safely seated or resting to prevent hypotension or injury.
C. Measure the client's vital signs: Vital signs provide valuable baseline data, but addressing the client’s immediate safety and reducing cardiac workload takes priority.
D. Have the client stop walking and sit down: Stopping activity decreases oxygen demand on the heart and prevents worsening ischemia or collapse, making it the first and most critical action.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"C"}
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Choices
• Mastitis: The client is breastfeeding and presents with a visible cracked nipple, which provides an entry point for bacteria. Mastitis is a common postpartum infection of the breast tissue, particularly when nipple trauma or milk stasis is present, increasing the risk of inflammation and infection.
• Cracked nipple: The cracked nipple is a clear portal of entry for bacteria, especially Staphylococcus aureus. This physical finding directly predisposes the client to mastitis, making it the most immediate risk factor in this scenario.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices
• Perineal hematoma: A perineal hematoma typically occurs shortly after delivery due to trauma to the perineal blood vessels. This client is 2 weeks postpartum, with only mild perineal discomfort reported, making a hematoma unlikely at this stage.
• Endometritis: Endometritis usually presents within the first week postpartum with fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling lochia. This client denies abdominal pain, has no fever, and reports normal lochia, making endometritis unlikely.
• Large for gestational age newborn: While the client delivered a newborn weighing 4,508 g, this factor primarily increases the risk for birth trauma, shoulder dystocia, or perineal injury. It does not directly predispose to mastitis.
• Group B streptococcus: Group B strep status primarily affects the newborn risk and prophylactic antibiotic decisions during labor. In the absence of postpartum infection symptoms in the mother, GBS is not the key factor contributing to mastitis in this client.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. "I will plan to continue taking this medication for at least 5 years.": Disulfiram therapy is not prescribed for a fixed duration such as 5 years. The length of treatment depends on the client’s motivation and response, typically continuing until long-term abstinence is maintained.
B. "My provider wants me to take this medication for 2 weeks before I try to quit drinking.": Disulfiram must be started only after the client has abstained from alcohol for at least 12 hours, not before quitting. Taking it while alcohol is still in the system can trigger severe reactions such as flushing, nausea, vomiting, and hypotension.
C. "I should avoid over-the-counter medications that contain alcohol.": Even small amounts of alcohol—such as in cough syrups, mouthwash, or sauces—can cause a dangerous disulfiram-alcohol reaction. Clients must avoid all alcohol-containing products.
D. "I will need to get a monthly injection of this medication.": Disulfiram is taken orally, usually once daily, and does not come in injectable form. The injectable medication used for alcohol dependence is naltrexone (Vivitrol).
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