A nurse is caring for a client who has a spinal cord injury at the fourth cervical level. Which of the following mobility options should the nurse anticipate for this client?
Manual wheelchair
Sip-and-puff device
Drive-adapted wheelchair
Ultra-light wheelchairs
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason:
Manual wheelchair is inappropriate. A manual wheelchair requires the use of the client's upper extremities to propel the wheelchair forward by pushing on the wheels. With a spinal cord injury at the fourth cervical level, the client may have limited or no function in their upper extremities, making it difficult to self-propel a manual wheelchair.
Choice B Reason:
Sip-and-puff device is appropriate. A sip-and-puff device allows individuals with limited or no hand function to control a powered wheelchair using their breath. This device enables the client to navigate the wheelchair by inhaling or exhaling into a straw-like device, which activates controls to move the wheelchair forward, backward, and turn.
Choice C Reason:
Drive-adapted wheelchair is inappropriate. A drive-adapted wheelchair is a powered wheelchair that can be modified with adaptive controls to accommodate individuals with limited hand function or mobility. These wheelchairs may include joystick controls, head arrays, chin controls, or other adaptive devices that allow the client to operate the wheelchair independently despite limited hand function.
Choice D Reason:
Ultra-light wheelchairs is inappropriate. Ultra-light wheelchairs are manual wheelchairs that are lightweight and often customized to fit the client's specific needs and preferences. While ultra-light wheelchairs may offer advantages in terms of maneuverability and ease of transportation, they still require sufficient upper extremity function to self-propel the wheelchair.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E","F"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Refraining from climbing ladders is appropriate. Climbing ladders involves a risk of falling, which can be particularly hazardous for individuals with epilepsy. Seizures can occur unexpectedly and may cause loss of muscle control or consciousness, increasing the risk of falls from heights such as ladders. Falling from a ladder during a seizure can result in serious injuries, including head trauma, fractures, or other injuries from impact. Advising the client to refrain from climbing ladders helps mitigate the risk of falls and associated injuries during a seizure episode, promoting their safety and well-being.
Choice B Reason:
Do not go swimming without a partner is inappropriate. Swimming alone can be dangerous for individuals with epilepsy as they may be at risk of drowning if they experience a seizure while in the water. Having a swimming partner can provide assistance and ensure safety in case of a seizure.
Choice C Reason:
Refraining from driving unless seizure-free for 3 months is appropriate. Driving restrictions are often recommended for individuals with epilepsy to minimize the risk of accidents caused by seizures. Many jurisdictions require individuals with epilepsy to be seizure-free for a certain period, typically around 3 to 6 months, before resuming driving.
Choice D Reason:
Avoiding using power tools is appropriate. Operating power tools or machinery can be hazardous if a seizure occurs, potentially leading to serious injuries. Therefore, individuals with epilepsy should avoid using power tools to reduce the risk of accidents during a seizure.
Choice E Reason:
Placing client on the floor when having a seizure is appropriate. Placing the client on the floor during a seizure helps prevent injury from falls. It is safer to have the individual lie down on a flat surface to reduce the risk of head injury or other trauma during the seizure.
Choice F Reason:
Placing client on their back when they are recovering from a seizure appropriate. Placing the client on their back after a seizure helps maintain an open airway and facilitates recovery. This position allows for proper breathing and circulation while monitoring the individual's condition.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
The client should maintain systolic BP between 120 and 129 mm Hg. This option aligns with current guidelines for blood pressure management following a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Tight blood pressure control is recommended to reduce the risk of recurrent cerebrovascular events, such as stroke. Maintaining systolic blood pressure (SBP) between 120 and 129 mm Hg has been associated with significant risk reduction in stroke recurrence compared to higher blood pressure targets. Therefore, this option reflects the recommended approach for blood pressure management in individuals with a history of TIA.
Choice B Reason:
The client should maintain systolic BP between 136 and 140 mm Hg: This option suggests a systolic blood pressure (SBP) range that is higher than the recommended target for blood pressure management following a TIA. Allowing SBP to remain in the range of 136 to 140 mm Hg may pose an increased risk of recurrent cerebrovascular events compared to tighter blood pressure control.
Choice C Reason:
The client should maintain systolic BP between 141 and 145 mm Hg. Similarly, this option proposes a systolic blood pressure (SBP) range that is higher than the recommended target for blood pressure management following a TIA. Allowing SBP to remain in the range of 141 to 145 mm Hg may not provide adequate protection against stroke recurrence compared to tighter blood pressure control.
Choice D Reason:
The client should maintain systolic BP between 130 and 135 mm Hg. While this option suggests a systolic blood pressure (SBP) range that is closer to the recommended target compared to options B and C, it still falls slightly above the optimal range for blood pressure management following a TIA. Tighter blood pressure control, ideally below 130 mm Hg, is typically preferred to reduce the risk of recurrent cerebrovascular events.
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