A nurse is caring for a client who has a spinal cord injury at the fourth cervical level. Which of the following mobility options should the nurse anticipate for this client?
Manual wheelchair
Sip-and-puff device
Drive-adapted wheelchair
Ultra-light wheelchairs
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason:
Manual wheelchair is inappropriate. A manual wheelchair requires the use of the client's upper extremities to propel the wheelchair forward by pushing on the wheels. With a spinal cord injury at the fourth cervical level, the client may have limited or no function in their upper extremities, making it difficult to self-propel a manual wheelchair.
Choice B Reason:
Sip-and-puff device is appropriate. A sip-and-puff device allows individuals with limited or no hand function to control a powered wheelchair using their breath. This device enables the client to navigate the wheelchair by inhaling or exhaling into a straw-like device, which activates controls to move the wheelchair forward, backward, and turn.
Choice C Reason:
Drive-adapted wheelchair is inappropriate. A drive-adapted wheelchair is a powered wheelchair that can be modified with adaptive controls to accommodate individuals with limited hand function or mobility. These wheelchairs may include joystick controls, head arrays, chin controls, or other adaptive devices that allow the client to operate the wheelchair independently despite limited hand function.
Choice D Reason:
Ultra-light wheelchairs is inappropriate. Ultra-light wheelchairs are manual wheelchairs that are lightweight and often customized to fit the client's specific needs and preferences. While ultra-light wheelchairs may offer advantages in terms of maneuverability and ease of transportation, they still require sufficient upper extremity function to self-propel the wheelchair.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Depression is incorrect. While depression can contribute to headaches in some individuals, it is more commonly associated with migraine headaches rather than tension-type headaches or cluster headaches. People with depression may experience changes in neurotransmitter levels and alterations in pain perception, which can exacerbate migraines. However, tension-type headaches and cluster headaches are generally less strongly associated with depression as a precipitating factor compared to migraines.
Choice B Reason:
Smoking is incorrect. Smoking can be a trigger for headaches in some individuals, particularly migraines, due to the vasoconstrictive effects of nicotine and other compounds in tobacco smoke. However, smoking is not universally recognized as a common precipitating factor for tension-type headaches or cluster headaches. While individuals with cluster headaches may have higher rates of smoking compared to the general population, it is not a factor commonly shared with tension-type headaches.
Choice C Reason:
Poor posture is incorrect. Poor posture can contribute to muscle tension and cervical spine strain, which may trigger tension-type headaches. However, poor posture is not typically considered a precipitating factor specific to cluster headaches. While tension-type headaches may be exacerbated by poor posture, cluster headaches are characterized by severe, unilateral pain typically centered around the eye or temple, with associated autonomic symptoms such as tearing, nasal congestion, or ptosis.
Choice D Reason:
Stress is correct. Stress is a well-established precipitating factor for both tension-type headaches and cluster headaches. Stress can lead to muscle tension and contraction, which are common triggers for tension-type headaches. Additionally, stress can also contribute to the onset or worsening of cluster headaches, although the exact mechanisms underlying this association are not fully understood. Therefore, stress is a common precipitating factor for both tension-type headaches and cluster headaches.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Drooling is inappropriate. Drooling, also known as sialorrhea, is a common symptom in Parkinson's disease due to impaired swallowing and reduced control of the muscles involved in saliva production. Anticholinergic medications can exacerbate dry mouth, which may contribute to drooling. However, drooling is not typically a side effect that would be specifically associated with anticholinergic use.
Choice B Reason:
Anhidrosis is appropriate. Anhidrosis refers to the inability to sweat normally. Anticholinergic medications can inhibit sweating by blocking the action of acetylcholine on sweat glands, leading to decreased sweating and potentially causing hyperthermia. Anhidrosis is a potential side effect of anticholinergic agents and should be reported to the healthcare provider due to the risk of overheating.
Choice C Reason:
Tremors is inappropriate. Tremors are a common symptom of Parkinson's disease and are typically not caused by anticholinergic medications. In fact, anticholinergic agents are often prescribed to help reduce tremors in individuals with Parkinson's disease. Tremors would not be considered an adverse effect that the client should report in the context of anticholinergic therapy.
Choice D Reason:
Rigidity is inappropriate. Rigidity, or stiffness of the muscles, is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease resulting from the loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the brain. While anticholinergic medications can help alleviate some symptoms of Parkinson's disease, they are not typically associated with rigidity. Rigidity would not be considered an adverse effect that the client should report in the context of anticholinergic therapy.
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