A nurse is caring for a client who has a placenta previa.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Nausea.
Polyhydramnios.
Uterine tenderness.
Spotting.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D, spotting.
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta implants in the lower part of the uterus, partly or completely covering the cervical opening.
This can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, usually in the third trimester.
Spotting is a sign of placenta previa and should be reported to the provider immediately.
Choice A is wrong because nausea is not a specific finding of placenta previa.
Nausea can occur in normal pregnancy or in other conditions such as hyperemesis gravidarum or preeclampsia.
Choice B is wrong because polyhydramnios is not a finding of placenta previa.
Polyhydramnios is a condition where there is too much amniotic fluid in the uterus, which can cause complications such as preterm labor, cord prolapse, or fetal malformations.
Choice C is wrong because uterine tenderness is not a finding of placenta previa.
Uterine tenderness is a sign of abruptio placentae, which is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery.
This can cause severe abdominal pain, dark red vaginal bleeding, and fetal distress.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
The correct answer is choicea, b, e.
Choice A rationale:A recent weight gain of 1.8 kg (4 lb) with a BMI of 18.9 may indicate potential nutritional issues or underlying health problems that require further investigation.
Choice B rationale:Having an adult child prepare meals could suggest the client may have difficulties with meal preparation, possibly due to physical or cognitive limitations.
Choice C rationale:Clean and weather-appropriate clothing indicates the client is managing their personal hygiene and dressing appropriately, which does not typically prompt further assessment.
Choice D rationale:Receiving regular baths from a home care aide suggests the client has support for personal hygiene, which is generally a positive indicator and does not necessitate further assessment.
Choice E rationale:Frequent toothaches and lack of dental care can indicate poor oral health, which can have significant implications for overall health and nutrition, warranting a more detailed assessment.
Choice F rationale:Making eye contact and smiling while speaking generally indicates good social interaction skills and mental well-being, which does not typically prompt further assessment.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. The nurse should ensure the state health department has been notified of the child’s Lyme disease, as it is a reportable disease in most states.
Reporting helps to monitor the incidence and prevalence of Lyme disease and to implement prevention and control measures.
Choice B is wrong because antitoxin is not used to treat Lyme disease.
Antitoxin is a substance that neutralizes the effects of a toxin, such as botulism or tetanus. Lyme disease is caused by a bacterium called Borrelia burgdorferi, which can be treated with antibiotics.
Choice C is wrong because Lyme disease is not transmitted by sharing personal belongings. Lyme disease is spread to humans by the bite of infected ticks that carry the
bacterium. The risk of getting Lyme disease can be reduced by avoiding tick-infested areas, wearing protective clothing, using insect repellent, and removing ticks promptly.
Choice D is wrong because skin necrosis is not a common complication of Lyme disease.
Skin necrosis is the death of skin tissue due to lack of blood supply or infection. Lyme disease can cause a characteristic skin rash called erythema migrans, which is usually circular or oval and expands over time. Other possible signs and symptoms of Lyme disease include fever, headache, fatigue, joint pain, and neurological problems.
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