A nurse is caring for a client who has a placenta previa.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Nausea.
Polyhydramnios.
Uterine tenderness.
Spotting.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D, spotting.
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta implants in the lower part of the uterus, partly or completely covering the cervical opening.
This can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, usually in the third trimester.
Spotting is a sign of placenta previa and should be reported to the provider immediately.
Choice A is wrong because nausea is not a specific finding of placenta previa.
Nausea can occur in normal pregnancy or in other conditions such as hyperemesis gravidarum or preeclampsia.
Choice B is wrong because polyhydramnios is not a finding of placenta previa.
Polyhydramnios is a condition where there is too much amniotic fluid in the uterus, which can cause complications such as preterm labor, cord prolapse, or fetal malformations.
Choice C is wrong because uterine tenderness is not a finding of placenta previa.
Uterine tenderness is a sign of abruptio placentae, which is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery.
This can cause severe abdominal pain, dark red vaginal bleeding, and fetal distress.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. The client is oriented times three.
This means that the client knows who they are, where they are, and what time it is. This indicates a high level of consciousness and a normal Glasgow coma scale (GCS) rating of 15.
Choice A is wrong because the client withdraws from pain.
This means that the client reacts to a painful stimulus by pulling away from it. This indicates a lower level of consciousness and a GCS rating of 4 for motor response.
Choice B is wrong because the client is unable to obey commands.
This means that the client does not follow simple instructions such as moving a limb or opening their eyes. This indicates a lower level of consciousness and a GCS rating of 1 or 2 for motor response.
Choice C is wrong because the client opens eyes to sound.
This means that the client does not open their eyes spontaneously, but only when they hear a loud noise. This indicates a lower level of consciousness and a GCS rating of 3 for eye opening.
The Glasgow coma scale is a clinical tool used to assess the level of consciousness of a person after a brain injury.
It consists of three tests: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.
Each test has a score range from 1 to 6, with higher scores indicating higher levels of consciousness. The total score ranges from 3 to 15, with lower scores indicating higher risk of death.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Explaining the procedure to the client before verifying informed consent is not an appropriate action: While it is essential to explain the procedure to the client and ensure they have a clear understanding of what they are consenting to, this step typically occurs before the informed consent form is presented. The purpose of the informed consent form is to document that the client has received adequate information and has given their consent voluntarily
Choice B reason:
Confirming the client's signature is authentic is the correct action. Verifying the record of informed consent for a client scheduled for surgery involves several important steps. Of these, the nurse's primary responsibility is to ensure that the client's signature on the informed consent form is authentic. This means ensuring that the client themselves or their authorized representative has signed the form willingly and without coercion.
Choice C reason:
Providing information on the informed consent form about the benefits of the surgery is not an appropriate action: The informed consent form typically contains information about the procedure, its risks, possible complications, and alternatives, but it is not the nurse's responsibility to provide this information. The healthcare provider or surgeon is responsible for explaining the details of the surgery to the client before obtaining their consent.
Choice D reason:
Informing the client about the condition that requires treatment is not an appropriate action: The responsibility of informing the client about their medical condition, the need for treatment, and the available options lies with the healthcare provider or surgeon, not the nurse. The nurse may assist in providing information or answering questions, but the primary responsibility for discussing the medical condition lies with the provider.
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