A nurse is caring for a client who has a placenta previa.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Nausea.
Polyhydramnios.
Uterine tenderness.
Spotting.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D, spotting.
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta implants in the lower part of the uterus, partly or completely covering the cervical opening.
This can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, usually in the third trimester.
Spotting is a sign of placenta previa and should be reported to the provider immediately.
Choice A is wrong because nausea is not a specific finding of placenta previa.
Nausea can occur in normal pregnancy or in other conditions such as hyperemesis gravidarum or preeclampsia.
Choice B is wrong because polyhydramnios is not a finding of placenta previa.
Polyhydramnios is a condition where there is too much amniotic fluid in the uterus, which can cause complications such as preterm labor, cord prolapse, or fetal malformations.
Choice C is wrong because uterine tenderness is not a finding of placenta previa.
Uterine tenderness is a sign of abruptio placentae, which is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery.
This can cause severe abdominal pain, dark red vaginal bleeding, and fetal distress.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. The client is oriented times three.
This means that the client knows who they are, where they are, and what time it is. This indicates a high level of consciousness and a normal Glasgow coma scale (GCS) rating of 15.
Choice A is wrong because the client withdraws from pain.
This means that the client reacts to a painful stimulus by pulling away from it. This indicates a lower level of consciousness and a GCS rating of 4 for motor response.
Choice B is wrong because the client is unable to obey commands.
This means that the client does not follow simple instructions such as moving a limb or opening their eyes. This indicates a lower level of consciousness and a GCS rating of 1 or 2 for motor response.
Choice C is wrong because the client opens eyes to sound.
This means that the client does not open their eyes spontaneously, but only when they hear a loud noise. This indicates a lower level of consciousness and a GCS rating of 3 for eye opening.
The Glasgow coma scale is a clinical tool used to assess the level of consciousness of a person after a brain injury.
It consists of three tests: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.
Each test has a score range from 1 to 6, with higher scores indicating higher levels of consciousness. The total score ranges from 3 to 15, with lower scores indicating higher risk of death.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Perform the procedure prior to meals.
This is because postural drainage involves positioning the child in different ways to help drain the mucus from the lungs.
If the child has a full stomach, this can cause nausea, vomiting, or aspiration. Therefore, the nurse should perform the procedure before meals or at least 1 hour after meals.
Choice A is wrong because the nurse should not hold the hand flat to perform percussions on the child.
Percussions are rhythmic clapping on the chest wall to loosen the mucus. The nurse should use a cupped hand to create a small air pocket that enhances the vibrations and prevents bruising.
Choice B is wrong because the nurse should not perform the procedure twice a day. The recommended frequency of postural drainage is 3 to 4 times a day, or more if needed, depending on the child’s condition and tolerance.
Choice D is wrong because the nurse should not administer a bronchodilator after the procedure.
A bronchodilator is a medication that relaxes and widens the airways, making it easier to breathe. The nurse should administer a bronchodilator before the procedure to enhance the effectiveness of postural drainage.
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