A nurse is caring for a client who has a fractured hip and was placed in skeletal traction 2 hours ago. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Provide pin care when the client is 4 hours postoperative.
Remove the weights from the traction while repositioning the client in bed.
Assess the client's circulation every 4 hours.
Request the client to perform ankle exercises on the affected extremity.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Providing pin care when the client is 4 hours postoperative is not appropriate. The client has just undergone skeletal traction placement, and pin care is usually initiated after 24 hours to allow for initial wound healing.
Choice B rationale:
Removing the weights from the traction while repositioning the client in bed is unsafe and not recommended. The weights should remain in place to provide continuous traction and alignment for the fractured hip.
Choice C rationale:
Assessing the client's circulation every 4 hours is essential to monitor for any signs of impaired circulation, such as swelling, pallor, or decreased pulses. Early detection of circulatory compromise is critical to prevent complications like compartment syndrome.
Choice D rationale:
Requesting the client to perform ankle exercises on the affected extremity is not appropriate after skeletal traction placement. Ankle exercises could disrupt traction and hinder the healing process of the fractured hip.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 0.8 is within the normal range for someone not on anticoagulation therapy. The aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) of 85 seconds is prolonged, but it is not a reason to withhold heparin in itself. Therefore, the nurse should not withhold the medication for these values.
Choice B rationale:
An INR of 2 indicates the client's blood is taking twice as long to clot compared to the average, which can increase the risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 60 seconds is within the normal range. However, the elevated INR suggests the client might be overly anticoagulated, so the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Answer: A. Diplopia.
Rationale:
A) Diplopia: Diplopia, or double vision, is a common symptom in multiple sclerosis (MS) due to demyelination of nerves in the brainstem, affecting eye movement coordination. This visual disturbance is frequently seen in MS clients and may worsen during flare-ups.
B) Masklike expression: A masklike expression is more commonly associated with Parkinson’s disease rather than multiple sclerosis. This characteristic facial appearance is due to muscle rigidity, which is not typically a manifestation of MS.
C) Twitching of the face: Facial twitching, or fasciculations, is not typically a primary symptom of multiple sclerosis. While muscle weakness and spasticity are common in MS, twitching is more commonly seen in conditions such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS).
D) Agitation: Agitation is not a primary symptom of MS. While MS can lead to cognitive changes or mood disturbances, such as depression, severe agitation is more commonly linked with other neurological or psychiatric conditions.
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