A nurse is caring for a client.
Medical History
0800
Client has a history of hyperlipidemia, rheumatoid arthritis, and hypertension.
Client has a BMI of 32
Client has a family history of colon cancer.
The nurse is reviewing the client's medical record. Which of the following findings places the client at risk for heart disease? (Select all that apply)
Cholesterol level
History of hyperlipidemia
History of hypertension
History of rheumatoid arthritis
Family history
Correct Answer : A,B,C
A. Cholesterol level: Elevated cholesterol levels are a risk factor for heart disease. High levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol and low levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol are associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease.
B. History of hyperlipidemia: Hyperlipidemia refers to elevated levels of lipids (fats) in the blood, including cholesterol and triglycerides. A history of hyperlipidemia indicates a pre-existing condition that can contribute to the risk of heart disease.
C. History of hypertension: Hypertension (high blood pressure) is a significant risk factor for heart disease. It can lead to damage to the arteries, increasing the risk of atherosclerosis (narrowing and hardening of the arteries) and other cardiovascular complications.
Explanation:
D. History of rheumatoid arthritis: While rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune condition that primarily affects the joints, it is not a direct risk factor for heart disease. However, people with rheumatoid arthritis may have an increased risk of cardiovascular disease due to inflammation.
E. Fasting glucose level: The fasting glucose level is related to diabetes rather than heart disease. However, diabetes is a significant risk factor for heart disease, so managing glucose levels is crucial for overall cardiovascular health.
F. Family history: While a family history of heart disease can contribute to an individual's overall risk, it is not a direct finding in the medical record that places the client at risk. The specific risk factors mentioned earlier (cholesterol level, history of hyperlipidemia, and history of hypertension) are more direct indicators of cardiovascular risk.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","F"]
Explanation
Correct responses
A. Lactose intolerant: Lactose intolerance can lead to lower dairy intake, which may reduce calcium intake, increasing the risk of osteoporosis.
B. Alcohol use: Excessive alcohol consumption can interfere with calcium absorption and bone health, increasing the risk of osteoporosis.
C. Smoking history: Smoking is associated with decreased bone density and increased risk of osteoporosis due to its negative effects on bone metabolism.
F. Vitamin D level: The client's vitamin D levels are below the recommended range. Vitamin D is crucial for calcium absorption and bone health, so insufficient levels can increase the risk of osteoporosis.
The other factors are less directly related to osteoporosis risk in this client:
D. Phosphorous level: The phosphorous level is within the normal range and is not directly linked to osteoporosis risk.
E. Activity level: The activity level is not provided in the information; however, physical activity is generally important for bone health. If the client is sedentary, it could be a risk factor, but it's not specified here.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Whisper a series of words softly into one ear.
Explanation: Whispering words into one ear is not part of Weber's test. This action is more relevant to the assessment of hearing acuity and not the lateralization of sound. Weber's test focuses on the perception of sound in relation to both ears, not the ability to hear whispered words.
B. Place an activated tuning fork in the middle of the client's forehead.
Explanation: In Weber's test, a tuning fork is placed in the middle of the client's forehead. The test is designed to assess whether sound lateralizes (moves) to one ear or is heard equally in both ears. If the client perceives the sound more in one ear than the other, it may indicate a hearing imbalance or issue.
C. Deliver a series of high-pitched sounds at random intervals.
Explanation: Delivering high-pitched sounds at random intervals is not part of Weber's test. Weber's test involves a single action – placing an activated tuning fork in the middle of the client's forehead. The purpose is to determine if the client perceives the sound equally in both ears or if there is lateralization. Random intervals and high-pitched sounds are not specified components of this test.
D. Hold an activated tuning fork against the client's mastoid process.
Explanation: While holding a tuning fork against the mastoid process is part of another hearing test called the Rinne test, it is not the appropriate action for the Weber's test. The Rinne test compares air conduction (using the tuning fork near the ear) to bone conduction (using the tuning fork against the mastoid process) to evaluate hearing in each ear. In Weber's test, we are specifically interested in lateralization of sound, not comparing air and bone conduction.
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