A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a client.
The nurse is reviewing the client's medical record. Which of the following findings places the client at risk for osteoporosis? (Select all that apply.)
Lactose intolerant,
Alcohol use
Smoking history
Phosphorous level
Activity level
Vitamin D level
Correct Answer : A,B,C,F
Correct responses
A. Lactose intolerant: Lactose intolerance can lead to lower dairy intake, which may reduce calcium intake, increasing the risk of osteoporosis.
B. Alcohol use: Excessive alcohol consumption can interfere with calcium absorption and bone health, increasing the risk of osteoporosis.
C. Smoking history: Smoking is associated with decreased bone density and increased risk of osteoporosis due to its negative effects on bone metabolism.
F. Vitamin D level: The client's vitamin D levels are below the recommended range. Vitamin D is crucial for calcium absorption and bone health, so insufficient levels can increase the risk of osteoporosis.
The other factors are less directly related to osteoporosis risk in this client:
D. Phosphorous level: The phosphorous level is within the normal range and is not directly linked to osteoporosis risk.
E. Activity level: The activity level is not provided in the information; however, physical activity is generally important for bone health. If the client is sedentary, it could be a risk factor, but it's not specified here.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Eyelashes that curl slightly outward:
This is the correct answer. The direction and curl of eyelashes vary among individuals, but eyelashes that curl slightly outward are a normal and expected finding. This characteristic does not typically indicate any pathology or abnormality.
B. Eyelids that blink involuntarily 30 to 35 times per minute:
The normal range for involuntary blinking is approximately 15 to 20 times per minute. A rate of 30 to 35 blinks per minute may suggest increased nervousness or anxiety and is not within the expected normal range.
C. Corneas with an opaque appearance:
Normal corneas should have a clear and transparent appearance. Opacity of the cornea can be indicative of various eye conditions, such as corneal edema or scarring, and is not an expected finding in a healthy eye.
D. Pupils that are 8 to 9 mm in diameter:
The normal range for pupil size is approximately 2 to 6 mm in diameter. Pupils that are 8 to 9 mm in diameter may indicate abnormal dilation (mydriasis) and can be associated with conditions such as drug toxicity or neurological issues.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Check that the client has a small gauge IV catheter in place.
Blood transfusions require a large-bore IV catheter (18-20 gauge) to prevent hemolysis and ensure efficient infusion. A small gauge IV (such as 22-24G) is not appropriate for PRBCs as it can slow the infusion and damage red blood cells.
B. Check the blood product's compatibility with the client's blood type: Before administering packed red blood cells (PRBCs), the nurse must verify blood compatibility to prevent a hemolytic transfusion reaction, which can be life-threatening.
C. Prime the client's primary IV tubing with lactated Ringer’s.
Only normal saline (0.9% NaCl) should be used to prime the IV tubing for a blood transfusion. Lactated Ringer’s and dextrose solutions can cause hemolysis and clotting of the blood product.
D. Confirm the identity of the client with the blood bank technician.While verifying the blood product is critical, the nurse should confirm the client’s identity at the bedside with another licensed nurse, not the blood bank technician. This ensures that the right blood is given to the right client following facility protocols.
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