A nurse is caring for a client.
Exhibit 1 Nurses' Notes Day 1: Exhibit 2 Exhibit 3 Client reports fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, and a persistent cough.
Performed a purified protein derivative test on the client and obtained a QuantiFERON-TB Gold blood test as prescribed.
Bilateral breath sounds with crackles and scattered wheezes throughout.
Cough productive for yellow, purulent sputum.
What are the first two actions the nurse should take?
Administer antibiotics and bronchodilators.
Initiate airborne precautions and isolation.
Start the client on cough suppressants and antihistamines.
Obtain sputum culture and chest X-ray.
The Correct Answer is D
The first two actions the nurse should take are to obtain a sputum culture and a chest X-ray.
These tests can help diagnose the cause of the client’s symptoms and guide treatment.
Choice A is wrong because administering antibiotics and bronchodilators should only be done after a diagnosis has been made.
Choice B is wrong because airborne precautions and isolation may not be necessary depending on the cause of the client’s symptoms.
Choice C is wrong because cough suppressants and antihistamines may not be appropriate treatments depending on the cause of the client’s symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Notify the healthcare provider.
The nurse should first notify the healthcare provider of the error in administering the IV bolus.
This is important because the healthcare provider can assess the situation and provide guidance on how to proceed.
Choice A is not the correct answer because obtaining the client’s vital signs is important but not the first action the nurse should take.
Choice C is not the correct answer because documenting the incident in the client’s medical record is important but not the first action the nurse should take.
Choice D is not the correct answer because assessing the client for adverse reactions is important but not the first action the nurse should take.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is a contraindication for receiving magnet therapy for pain relief because the magnetic field generated by the therapy can interfere with the functioning of the implanted defibrillator.
Choice A is wrong because having a prescription for metoprolol is not a contraindication for receiving magnet therapy for pain relief.
Choice B is wrong because being allergic to penicillin is not a contraindication for receiving magnet therapy for pain relief.
Choice D is wrong because having a history of alcohol use disorder is not a contraindication for receiving magnet therapy for pain relief.
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