A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation who is receiving continuous IV heparin. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority?
The client has an INR of 2.
The client has an aPTT of 80 seconds.
The client experiences sudden weakness of one arm and leg.
The client's ECG tracing shows irregular heart rate without P waves.
The Correct Answer is C
A. An INR of 2 is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation but is more relevant for warfarin therapy rather than heparin.
B. An aPTT of 80 seconds is slightly elevated but not immediately life-threatening. The therapeutic range for heparin is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value (approximately 60-80 seconds).
C. Sudden weakness of one arm and leg suggests a possible embolic stroke, which is a serious complication of atrial fibrillation. This requires immediate assessment and intervention.
D. An irregular heart rate without P waves is characteristic of atrial fibrillation but is not the most urgent concern compared to potential stroke symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Avoiding sick contacts is generally a good practice, but it is not the primary concern for a client with infective endocarditis. The focus is on preventing bacterial infections that could enter the bloodstream and affect the heart valves.
B. Prophylactic antibiotics are required before dental and invasive procedures to prevent bacterial endocarditis recurrence. The bacteria that cause infective endocarditis can enter the bloodstream through procedures that involve mucosal surfaces.
C. Discontinuing antibiotics when feeling better is incorrect. Infective endocarditis requires a full course of IV antibiotics, often lasting 4 to 6 weeks, to fully eradicate the infection and prevent complications.
D. Avoiding physical activity for six months is unnecessary unless the client has severe cardiac complications. However, clients should monitor for symptoms such as fatigue and consult their provider before engaging in strenuous activities.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Digoxin is a positive inotropic agent, meaning it increases the force of cardiac contractions. This helps improve cardiac output in patients with heart failure.
B. Digoxin does not decrease the force of contractions; instead, it strengthens them, making it beneficial for heart failure treatment.
C. Digoxin is commonly used in heart failure management, particularly in cases of systolic dysfunction or atrial fibrillation.
D. Digoxin decreases heart rate by slowing conduction through the atrioventricular (AV) node, making it useful in atrial fibrillation, but its primary benefit in heart failure is increasing contractility.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
