A nurse is caring for a client at the clinic.
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.
The client is at risk for
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Rationale for correct choices
• Spontaneous abortion: The client is presenting at 10 weeks gestation with moderate, bright red vaginal bleeding and a history of risk factors including type 1 diabetes mellitus and recurrent infections. The open cervix on examination indicates that the pregnancy may not be viable and suggests impending or ongoing miscarriage.
• Cervical dilation: Cervical dilation is a key clinical sign of spontaneous abortion, as it indicates that the body is preparing to expel the pregnancy. The presence of an open cervix in conjunction with vaginal bleeding and cramping directly supports the risk for miscarriage. Monitoring cervical changes helps the healthcare team assess the progression and urgency of intervention.
Rationale for incorrect choices
• Molar pregnancy: Molar pregnancy typically presents with markedly elevated hCG levels, larger-than-expected uterine size, and absence of a viable embryo. Although the client has an elevated hCG, the level is not excessively high, and there is no indication of vesicular tissue or characteristic ultrasound findings, making molar pregnancy unlikely.
• Ectopic pregnancy: Ectopic pregnancy generally presents with unilateral abdominal pain, shoulder pain, and sometimes hypotension or signs of internal bleeding. The client’s bleeding is bright red, moderate, and accompanied by cervical dilation, which is not typical for an ectopic pregnancy. No abdominal mass or unilateral tenderness is reported, reducing the likelihood of this diagnosis.
• Lower abdominal cramping: While cramping is a symptom associated with miscarriage, it alone is not sufficient evidence to determine the risk for spontaneous abortion. Cervical dilation is a more definitive clinical sign indicating that the miscarriage may be occurring or imminent.
• hCG levels: The client’s hCG level of 30,000 IU/L is within the expected range for 10 weeks gestation and does not specifically indicate miscarriage. Unlike cervical dilation, hCG levels alone cannot confirm the risk for spontaneous abortion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D,C,A,B
Explanation
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Forearm: The forearm is not a recommended site for subcutaneous injections because it has limited subcutaneous tissue and is typically reserved for intradermal injections, such as allergy testing or tuberculosis screening.
B. Ventrogluteal: The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections due to the large muscle mass and low risk of nerve injury. It is not suitable for subcutaneous injections, which require fatty tissue rather than muscle.
C. Outer posterior aspect of upper arm: This site contains adequate subcutaneous tissue, is easily accessible, and is commonly used for subcutaneous injections such as insulin or heparin. It allows for proper absorption and minimizes the risk of intramuscular administration.
D. Vastus lateralis: The vastus lateralis is part of the thigh and is primarily used for intramuscular injections, especially in infants or adults needing large-volume IM medications. It is not a typical site for subcutaneous injections.
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