A nurse is caring for a 28-year-old female client in the emergency department. The client is experiencing symptoms suggesting the risk of preterm birth.
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.
The nurse should identify that the client is at the greatest risk for preterm birth due to fetal fibronectin:
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
The nurse should identify that the client is at the greatest risk for preterm birth due to:
Response 1: B) being higher than normal (fetal fibronectin: 0.09 mcg/mL is higher than the normal level of ≤ 0.05 mcg/mL).
Response 2: B) Nitrazine and ferning tests negative
Here's the
- Fetal Fibronectin: Fetal fibronectin is a protein found between the amniotic sac and the uterine lining. Levels greater than 0.05 mcg/mL (like 0.09 mcg/mL) indicate an increased risk of preterm labor.
- Nitrazine and Ferning Tests: Both tests being negative indicates that there is no rupture of membranes. Even though these tests are negative, the elevated fetal fibronectin level still indicates a risk for preterm birth.
So the completed sentence would be: The nurse should identify that the client is at the greatest risk for preterm birth due to fetal fibronectin being higher than normal and Nitrazine and ferning tests negative.
This combination of findings suggests that preterm labor may be imminent despite the lack of membrane rupture. The elevated fetal fibronectin is a strong indicator of risk.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Obtain a prescription for a broad-spectrum antibiotic.
The client's fever (38.5°C), chills, abdominal pain, malodorous lochia, and tender fundus suggest a potential postpartum infection, such as endometritis. Administering a broad-spectrum antibiotic is necessary to treat the infection. Given the clinical scenario, the nurse should prioritize addressing the client's symptoms and signs that suggest infection and support her well-being postpartum. Here's a breakdown of the appropriate actions:
B. Initiate airborne isolation precautions.
- Not necessary in this case. The client's symptoms and signs do not suggest an airborne infectious disease.
C. Place the client on strict bedrest.
- This is not necessary. While rest is important, strict bedrest may not be required and could increase the risk of other complications, such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
D. Instruct the client to stop breastfeeding.
- Not necessary unless there is a specific contraindication. Instead, the nurse can provide support and advice on managing engorgement and breastfeeding difficulties.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Preparing for a cesarean birth is not an immediate necessity unless there are complications that warrant such intervention. Cesarean births are typically reserved for situations where vaginal delivery poses a risk to the mother or the baby.
Choice B rationale
Administering IV antibiotic prophylaxis is critical in preventing potential infections during the labor process, especially given the early gestation period. This helps in safeguarding both the mother and the fetus from infections like group B streptococcus.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining a vaginal culture is generally done to check for infections such as bacterial vaginosis or sexually transmitted infections. However, it is not an immediate priority when the patient is already in active labor.
Choice D rationale
Administering metronidazole orally is used to treat bacterial infections but is not an immediate action required in this scenario. Metronidazole may not be the most suitable choice during labor as it does not provide immediate infection prevention.
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