A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 days postpartum in the postpartum unit.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 days postpartum. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Obtain a prescription for a broad-spectrum antibiotic.
Initiate airborne isolation precautions.
Place the client on strict bedrest.
Instruct the client to stop breastfeeding.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Obtain a prescription for a broad-spectrum antibiotic.
The client's fever (38.5°C), chills, abdominal pain, malodorous lochia, and tender fundus suggest a potential postpartum infection, such as endometritis. Administering a broad-spectrum antibiotic is necessary to treat the infection. Given the clinical scenario, the nurse should prioritize addressing the client's symptoms and signs that suggest infection and support her well-being postpartum. Here's a breakdown of the appropriate actions:
B. Initiate airborne isolation precautions.
- Not necessary in this case. The client's symptoms and signs do not suggest an airborne infectious disease.
C. Place the client on strict bedrest.
- This is not necessary. While rest is important, strict bedrest may not be required and could increase the risk of other complications, such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
D. Instruct the client to stop breastfeeding.
- Not necessary unless there is a specific contraindication. Instead, the nurse can provide support and advice on managing engorgement and breastfeeding difficulties.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cesarean birth is not necessarily required for GBS-positive clients as long as IV antibiotic prophylaxis is administered during labor to prevent transmission to the newborn.
Choice B rationale
IV antibiotic prophylaxis, typically with penicillin or ampicillin, is given to GBS-positive clients during labor to prevent neonatal GBS infection.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining a vaginal culture at 39 weeks of gestation is not necessary if the client was already screened and found positive for GBS at 36 weeks.
Choice D rationale
Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis, not GBS infection; thus, it is not appropriate for this scenario. .
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Elevating the head of the client’s bed is not indicated in this situation and does not address the issue of excessive bleeding postpartum.
Choice B rationale
Administering terbutaline, a medication used to manage preterm labor, is not relevant in the context of postpartum hemorrhage and excessive bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Initiating oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula may help with oxygenation but does not address the primary issue of excessive postpartum bleeding.
Choice D rationale
Initiating an infusion of oxytocin is the correct action as it helps contract the uterus and reduce postpartum bleeding, making it a crucial step in managing this situation.
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