A nurse is caring for a 25yearold male quadriplegic client. Which of the following treatments would the nurse perform to decrease the risk of joint contracture and promote joint mobility?
Provide active range of motion (ROM)
Provide passive range of motion (ROM)
Turn the client every 2 hours
Administer glucosamine supplements
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Providing active range of motion (ROM) is not a treatment that the nurse can perform for a quadriplegic client. Active ROM means that the client moves their own joints without assistance. A quadriplegic client has paralysis of all four limbs and cannot move their joints voluntarily.
Choice B reason: Providing passive range of motion (ROM) is a treatment that the nurse can perform for a quadriplegic client. Passive ROM means that the nurse moves the client's joints through their full range of motion without resistance. This helps prevent joint contracture, which is the loss of joint movement and flexibility due to muscle shortening and stiffness. It also helps maintain joint mobility, which is the ability of the joint to move smoothly and freely.
Choice C reason: Turning the client every 2 hours is not a treatment that the nurse can perform to decrease the risk of joint contracture and promote joint mobility. Turning the client every 2 hours is a preventive measure to avoid pressure ulcers, which are skin injuries caused by prolonged pressure on the skin. It does not directly affect the joint function or movement.
Choice D reason: Administering glucosamine supplements is not a treatment that the nurse can perform to decrease the risk of joint contracture and promote joint mobility. Glucosamine supplements are dietary supplements that may help reduce the pain and inflammation of osteoarthritis, which is a degenerative joint disease that causes the breakdown of the cartilage and bone in the joints. It does not affect the muscle or nerve function or movement.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Stage 1 is a wound that involves only the epidermis, the outermost layer of the skin. It appears as a nonblanchable redness, warmth, or hardness on intact skin. It does not have any breakage or ulceration of the skin.
Choice B reason: Stage 2 is a wound that involves the epidermis and the dermis, the second layer of the skin. It appears as a shallow, open, reddened ulcer with a partialthickness loss of skin. It may have some serous exudate, but no slough or eschar. It may also present as a blister or abrasion.
Choice C reason: Stage 3 is a wound that involves the epidermis, the dermis, and the subcutaneous tissue, the third layer of the skin. It appears as a deep, open, reddened ulcer with a fullthickness loss of skin. It may have some slough or eschar, but no exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. It may also have tunneling or undermining of the wound edges.
Choice D reason: Stage 4 is a wound that involves the epidermis, the dermis, the subcutaneous tissue, and the underlying structures, such as bone, tendon, or muscle. It appears as a deep, open, reddened ulcer with a fullthickness loss of skin and tissue. It has exposed bone, tendon, or muscle, which may be visible or palpable. It may also have slough, eschar, necrosis, infection, or osteomyelitis.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Higherthannormal number of CD4+ Tcells and CD8+ Tcells are normal is not a laboratory value that most adults with human immunodeficiency virus will exhibit, because it does not reflect the effect of the virus on the immune system. CD4+ Tcells and CD8+ Tcells are types of white blood cells that play a key role in the immune response. CD4+ Tcells are helper cells that activate and coordinate other immune cells, while CD8+ Tcells are cytotoxic cells that kill infected or abnormal cells. Human immunodeficiency virus infects and destroys CD4+ Tcells, which impairs the immune function and increases the risk of opportunistic infections and cancers. CD8+ Tcells are not directly affected by the virus, but they may increase in number as a compensatory mechanism to fight the infection. Therefore, most adults with human immunodeficiency virus will have lowerthannormal number of CD4+ Tcells and higher than normal CD8+ Tcells.
Choice B reason: Lowerthannormal number of CD4+ Tcells and CD8+ Tcells are normal is not a laboratory value that most adults with human immunodeficiency virus will exhibit, because it does not reflect the effect of the virus on the immune system, as explained above. Lowerthannormal number of CD4+ Tcells and CD8+ Tcells are normal may indicate a condition that affects both types of Tcells, such as aplastic anemia, chemotherapy, radiation therapy, or immunosuppressive drugs.
Choice C reason: Lowerthannormal number of CD4+ Tcells and higher than normal CD8+ Tcells is a laboratory value that most adults with human immunodeficiency virus will exhibit, because it reflects the effect of the virus on the immune system, as explained above. Lowerthannormal number of CD4+ Tcells and higher than normal CD8+ Tcells may indicate the progression of the infection and the severity of the immunodeficiency. The normal range of CD4+ Tcells is 500 to 1500 cells per microliter of blood, while the normal range of CD8+ Tcells is 150 to 1000 cells per microliter of blood.
Choice D reason: Higherthannormal number of CD4+ Tcells and CD8+ Tcells are low is not a laboratory value that most adults with human immunodeficiency virus will exhibit, because it does not reflect the effect of the virus on the immune system, as explained above. Higherthannormal number of CD4+ Tcells and CD8+ Tcells are low may indicate a condition that affects CD8+ Tcells, such as leukemia, lymphoma, or corticosteroid therapy.
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