A nurse is assisting with the evaluation of a facility's safety plan. Which of the following indicates that the safety plan is effective?
Staff members used a class A fire extinguisher during an electrical fire
Staff members review the locations of fire extinguishers every 2 to 3 years.
An evacuation was ordered during a fire when fire extinguishers were not effective.
Fire alarms in the facility have the same sound as other alarms.
The Correct Answer is C
Correct answers: C
Rationale:
A. Staff members using a class A fire extinguisher for an electrical fire is incorrect and dangerous. Class A extinguishers are for ordinary combustibles like paper and wood. Electrical fires require class C extinguishers to prevent the conduction of electricity.
B. Reviewing the locations of fire extinguishers every 2 to 3 years is insufficient for an effective safety plan. Regular fire safety drills and location reviews should occur at least annually. Frequent reinforcement ensures rapid response during a real fire emergency.
C. An evacuation order when fire extinguishers are ineffective indicates an effective safety plan and sound clinical judgment. The priority in the RACE acronym is to rescue and then evacuate if the fire is not contained. This protects life when suppression fails.
D. Fire alarms having the same sound as other alarms is a failure in safety design. Distinctive auditory signals are required to prevent confusion during an emergency. Unique alarms ensure that staff and patients immediately identify the specific nature of the threat.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
A. "I can expect my contact lenses to turn red or orange.”
Rifampin causes red-orange discoloration of body fluids, including tears, sweat, urine, and saliva. This effect is harmless but can stain soft contact lenses permanently, so clients should be advised to use glasses instead.
B. “I should notify my provider if I start taking new over-the-counter or prescription medications.”
Rifampin is a potent enzyme inducer that can alter the metabolism of many drugs, including oral contraceptives and anticoagulants. The provider should be informed of any new medications to avoid potential drug interactions and ensure therapeutic effectiveness.
C. “I will need to have someone observe me when I take my medication.”
Directly observed therapy (DOT) is recommended to ensure adherence to tuberculosis treatment. A healthcare provider or designated individual supervises medication intake to improve compliance and reduce the risk of drug resistance.
D. “I will need to have a repeat Mantoux test in 4 weeks.”
A repeat Mantoux test is unnecessary for diagnosing active tuberculosis, as this condition is confirmed through sputum cultures and chest X-ray findings. Mantoux testing is primarily used for screening latent TB infections.
E. “I am no longer contagious.”
Clients with active tuberculosis remain contagious until they complete at least two weeks of effective multidrug therapy and show clinical improvement. Until then, infection control measures such as respiratory isolation should be followed.
F. “I will need to take my medications for a total of 6 weeks.”
The standard treatment for active tuberculosis lasts at least six months, typically involving a four-drug regimen for the first two months, followed by two drugs for the remaining four months. A six-week course is insufficient for eradication.
G. "I can continue my current alcohol intake."
Alcohol should be avoided due to the hepatotoxic effects of isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Combining alcohol with these medications increases the risk of liver damage, requiring clients to abstain or limit intake.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) If you continue to refuse to eat, I will have to insert an NG tube: This response is coercive and may not be respectful of the client’s autonomy. It can create a sense of fear and mistrust, which can make the client feel pressured or cornered. It is important to respect the client’s beliefs and preferences while also promoting nutrition, so alternative options should be explored in a more collaborative manner.
B) Why aren't you willing to eat?: While it’s important to understand the client’s reasons for refusing to eat, this response could come across as confrontational. It may place the client on the defensive and fail to acknowledge their beliefs and autonomy. A more open-ended and supportive approach is needed to create a dialogue that is respectful and patient-centered.
C) "Your nutrition is more important than your beliefs.": This response disregards the client's personal beliefs and could be perceived as disrespectful. While nutrition is critical, it is important to work within the framework of the client’s values and beliefs. The nurse should strive for a compassionate conversation that balances nutritional needs with cultural or personal beliefs.
D) Let's discuss some menu options you would be interested in.: This response is respectful of the client’s beliefs and autonomy while still addressing the issue of malnutrition. By offering options and engaging the client in the decision-making process, the nurse fosters a collaborative approach. This can help increase the likelihood of the client agreeing to eat while respecting their preferences and beliefs.
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