A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is in labor with ruptured membranes and has herpes simplex virus with active lesions.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Begin an amnioinfusion for the client.
Prepare the client for a cesarean birth.
Administer ampicillin IV to the client.
Initiate an oxytocin infusion for the client.
The Correct Answer is B
Prepare the client for a cesarean birth.
This is because the client has herpes simplex virus with active lesions, which can be transmitted to the newborn during vaginal delivery and cause serious complications such as neonatal herpes infection. A cesarean birth can prevent this transmission and protect the newborn’s health.
Choice A is wrong because an amnioinfusion is a procedure that involves infusing fluid into the amniotic cavity to increase the volume of amniotic fluid and reduce cord compression.
It is not indicated for a client with herpes simplex virus with active lesions.
Choice C is wrong because ampicillin is an antibiotic that is used to treat bacterial infections, not viral infections such as herpes simplex virus.
Ampicillin will not prevent the transmission of herpes simplex virus to the newborn.
Choice D is wrong because oxytocin is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions and can be used to augment or induce labor.
It is not indicated for a client with herpes simplex virus with active lesions, as it can increase the risk of transmission to the newborn by prolonging the exposure to infected genital secretions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can lower blood pressure and cause dizziness or fainting, especially when standing up from a sitting or lying position. Changing positions slowly can help prevent these symptoms.
Choice A is wrong because palpitations are not an expected side effect of verapamil, but rather a sign of a possible overdose or a serious heart problem that requires medical attention.
Choice C is wrong because verapamil should be taken with food or milk to avoid stomach upset and increase absorption.
Choice D is wrong because verapamil does not cause weight loss, but rather weight gain as a possible side effect.
Increasing calorie intake is not necessary and may worsen other health conditions such as diabetes or high cholesterol.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious complication of pregnancy that causes high blood pressure and proteinuria.
The nurse should report this finding to the provider and monitor the client’s blood pressure, urine protein, and reflexes.
Choice A is wrong because leg cramps are a common discomfort during pregnancy and are not usually a sign of a complication.
Choice B is wrong because ptyalism, or excessive salivation, is a normal physiological change during pregnancy and does not indicate a problem.
Choice D is wrong because melasma, or darkening of the skin on the face, is also a normal physiological change during pregnancy and does not pose a risk to the mother or the fetus.
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