A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is experiencing a postpartum hemorrhage. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.).
Firmly massage the fundus.
Administer oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask.
Ensure the client has IV access.
Prepare the client for an amnioinfusion.
Correct Answer : A,B,C,E
Choice A reason:
The nurse should firmly massage the fundus. The rationale behind this action is that massaging the fundus helps to stimulate uterine contractions, which aids in controlling bleeding after childbirth. By promoting uterine contractions, the nurse can assist in preventing further hemorrhage.
Choice B reason:
The nurse should administer oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask. The rationale for this action is that postpartum hemorrhage can lead to decreased oxygen levels in the blood, which can be detrimental to both the mother and the baby. Providing oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask ensures adequate oxygenation and helps stabilize the client's condition.
Choice C reason:
The nurse should ensure the client has IV access. Establishing IV access is crucial in managing postpartum hemorrhage as it allows for the rapid administration of fluids, blood products, and medications. IV access ensures that the client receives prompt treatment to address the blood loss and stabilize her condition.
Choice D reason:
The nurse should not prepare the client for an amnioinfusion in the context of postpartum hemorrhage. An amnioinfusion is a procedure used during labor to infuse fluid into the amniotic sac. However, it is not indicated or relevant in the management of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice E reason:
The nurse should give the client Rh (D) immune globulin. The rationale behind this action is that Rh (D) immune globulin, also known as RhoGAM, is administered to Rh-negative mothers after the birth of an Rh-positive baby. This prevents the mother's immune system from developing antibodies against Rh-positive blood cells, which could cause complications in future pregnancies.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Abdominal distention. Choice A reason:
Abdominal distention is a common manifestation of Hirschsprung's disease in infants. This condition is characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in the distal segment of the colon, leading to a functional obstruction. The absence of ganglion cells causes the affected part of the colon to become narrow and unable to relax, resulting in a buildup of stool and gas, leading to abdominal distention.
Choice B reason:
Steatorrhea, which is the presence of fatty, bulky, and foul-smelling stools, is not typically associated with Hirschsprung's disease. This manifestation is more commonly seen in conditions affecting the pancreas, liver, or small intestine, where the digestion and absorption of fats are impaired.
Choice C reason:
Blood-tinged emesis (vomiting) is not a typical manifestation of Hirschsprung's disease. This symptom is more commonly associated with gastrointestinal bleeding, which can be caused by various factors such as ulcers, esophageal varices, or gastritis.
Choice D reason:
Dysphagia, which refers to difficulty swallowing, is also not a characteristic manifestation of Hirschsprung's disease. Dysphagia is more commonly seen in conditions affecting the esophagus or throat, such as esophageal strictures or neurological disorders affecting swallowing reflexes.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
The client stating, "This test is to check if my baby has diabetes,” indicates a misunderstanding of the purpose of the 1-hr glucose tolerance test (GTT). The test is performed to screen for gestational diabetes in the mother, not to check the baby's diabetes status. Rationale: Gestational diabetes is a condition where high blood sugar levels develop during pregnancy, and it can affect both the mother and the baby's health.
Choice B reason:
The client mentioning, "If the result is higher than normal, I will need to be on insulin the rest of my life,” demonstrates a misconception about the implications of the 1-hr GTT. The 1-hr GTT is a preliminary screening test, and if the results are higher than normal, it indicates the need for further evaluation, but it does not immediately mean a lifetime dependence on insulin. Rationale: Insulin therapy may be required for managing gestational diabetes in some cases, but not necessarily for the rest of the mother's life.
Choice C reason:
The client saying, "If I forget and eat before the test, then I won't be able to have the test done,” indicates a misunderstanding of the test procedure. The 1-hr GTT requires fasting before the test, typically for 8 to 14 hours, to get accurate results. However, if the client mistakenly eats before the test, it doesn't mean they cannot have the test done at all; they may need to reschedule it after an appropriate fasting period. Rationale: Fasting is crucial for accurate glucose level measurement during the test.
Choice D reason:
The client stating, "If the results are high, then I need another test to see if I have gestational diabetes,” demonstrates a correct understanding of the 1-hr GTT. If the initial screening test shows elevated glucose levels, further testing, such as the 3-hour glucose tolerance test (GTT), is required to confirm the diagnosis of gestational diabetes. Rationale: The 3-hour GTT is a more comprehensive diagnostic test used to confirm or rule out gestational diabetes.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.