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A 35-year-old female client with a history of irregular periods is scheduled for her first Pap smear. After explaining the procedure and potential risks, the nurse wants to assess the client's understanding of post-procedure instructions. Which of the following statements made by the client reflect an understanding of the explanation?

"I should avoid douching or using tampons for 24 hours after the Pap smear."

. "I can resume sexual activity as soon as I leave the clinic."

"It's normal to experience some mild cramping or spotting after the procedure."

"I should call the clinic if I experience heavy bleeding or foul-smelling discharge."

"I can expect the results of my Pap smear in about 2-3 days."

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,C,D

The correct answer is Choices A, C, and D.

Choice A rationale:

The statement, "I should avoid douching or using tampons for 24 hours after the Pap smear," demonstrates an understanding of post-procedure instructions. It reflects awareness of the need to avoid introducing foreign substances into the vagina immediately after the procedure, which could interfere with the accuracy of the results or increase the risk of infection. By abstaining from douching or tampon use, the client follows recommended guidelines for post-Pap smear care, promoting optimal healing and accuracy of results.

Choice B rationale:

The statement, "I can resume sexual activity as soon as I leave the clinic," is incorrect and does not reflect an understanding of post-Pap smear instructions. Resuming sexual activity immediately after the procedure is not recommended, as it may increase the risk of infection or discomfort. The client should be advised to abstain from sexual activity for a specified period, typically recommended by the healthcare provider, to allow for proper healing and to minimize the risk of complications.

Choice C rationale:

The statement, "It’s normal to experience some mild cramping or spotting after the procedure," demonstrates an understanding of common post-Pap smear symptoms. Mild cramping and spotting are normal reactions to the procedure and are not typically indicative of a problem. By acknowledging these potential side effects, the client shows awareness of what to expect after the Pap smear and is better prepared to manage any discomfort that may arise.

Choice D rationale:

The statement, "I should call the clinic if I experience heavy bleeding or foul-smelling discharge," reflects an understanding of the importance of monitoring for signs of complications post-procedure. Heavy bleeding or foul-smelling discharge may indicate an infection or other issues that require prompt medical attention. By instructing the client to contact the clinic in such situations, the nurse ensures that the client knows how to respond appropriately to potential complications, promoting their overall well-being and timely intervention if necessary.

Choice E rationale:

The statement, "I can expect the results of my Pap smear in about 2-3 days," is incorrect and does not reflect an understanding of the typical timeline for receiving Pap smear results. Pap smear results usually take longer, often a week or more, to be processed and interpreted by the laboratory. Providing accurate information about result expectations is essential for managing the client's post-procedure anxiety and ensuring realistic expectations regarding follow-up.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is B.

Stop the infusion. The nurse should stop the infusion immediately to prevent further fluid accumulation and tissue damage. This is a priority action accordingto the ABCDE principle, which guides nurses to prioritize airway, breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure issues. Infiltration is a complication of IV therapy that occurs when fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue due to dislodgment or puncture of the catheter. The signs and symptoms of infiltration include edema, coolness, pallor, pain, and decreased flow rate at the insertion site.

A. Natural loss of deciduous teeth B. Nontender, protruding abdomen C. Head circumference exceeds chest circumference D. Palpable fontanels

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B. Nontender, protruding abdomen.

Choice A rationale:

Natural loss of deciduous teeth typically begins around the age of 6 years, not at 2 years. At 2 years old, toddlers are still in the process of getting their primary teeth.

Choice B rationale:

A nontender, protruding abdomen is a normal finding in toddlers due to their developing abdominal muscles and the typical posture of a toddler.

Choice C rationale:

By the age of 2, a child’s head circumference should no longer exceed their chest circumference. This is a characteristic of infants, not toddlers.

Choice D rationale:

Palpable fontanels are expected in infants. By the age of 2, the anterior fontanel should have closed, making it non-palpable.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion. The nurse notes that the skin around the catheter's insertion site is edematous and cool. Which of the followingactions should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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