A nurse is assessing a female client and suspects that the client may have endometrial polyps based on which clinical manifestation?
Bleeding between menses
Bleeding after intercourse
Metrorrhagia
Vaginal discharge
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A: Bleeding between menses is not the correct answer because it is not a specific clinical manifestation of endometrial polyps. Bleeding between menses is a condition that causes spotting or bleeding at any time other than during the normal menstrual period. It can be caused by various factors such as hormonal imbalance, infection, or pregnancy. It can also occur in some women with endometrial polyps, but it is not a definitive sign of them.
Choice B: Bleeding after intercourse is not the correct answer because it is not a specific clinical manifestation of endometrial polyps. Bleeding after intercourse is a condition that causes bleeding from the vagina or cervix after sexual activity. It can be caused by various factors such as trauma, infection, or cancer. It can also occur in some women with endometrial polyps, but it is not a definitive sign of them.
Choice C: Metrorrhagia is the correct answer because it is a specific clinical manifestation of endometrial polyps. Metrorrhagia is a condition that causes irregular or excessive bleeding from the uterus that is unrelated to the menstrual cycle. It can be caused by various factors such as polyps, fibroids, or cancer. It is a common symptom of endometrial polyps, which are benign growths of the endometrium (the lining of the uterus) that can protrude into the uterine cavity and cause bleeding.
Choice D: Vaginal discharge is not the correct answer because it is not a specific clinical manifestation of endometrial polyps. Vaginal discharge is a fluid that comes out of the vagina and varies in color, consistency, and odor depending on the phase of the menstrual cycle, sexual activity, or health status. It can be caused by various factors such as normal secretions, infection, or inflammation. It is not a common symptom of endometrial polyps, which do not usually affect the vaginal flora or pH.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: Protrusion of the posterior bladder wall downward through the anterior vaginal wall is not the correct answer because it describes a different condition called cystocele. A cystocele occurs when the bladder pushes into the vagina due to weakened pelvic support structures.
Choice B: Bulging of the small intestine through the posterior vaginal wall is the correct answer because it describes an enterocele. Enterocele occurs when the small intestine slides into a pouch between the rectum and vagina due to weakened pelvic support structures.
Choice C: Descent of the uterus through the pelvic floor into the vagina is not the correct answer because it describes a different condition called uterine prolapse. Uterine prolapse occurs when the uterus drops down into or out of the vagina due to weakened pelvic support structures.
Choice D: Sagging of the rectum with the pressure exerted against the posterior vaginal wall is not the correct answer because it describes a different condition called rectocele. Rectocele occurs when the rectum bulges into or out of the vagina due to weakened pelvic support structures.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A: A 26-year-old client who has migraine headaches at the start of each menstrual cycle is not the correct answer because they do not have a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives. Oral contraceptives are pills that contain synthetic hormones (estrogen and progestin) that prevent ovulation and pregnancy. They can also help reduce menstrual cramps, bleeding, and migraines in some women. However, oral contraceptives may increase the risk of stroke in women who have migraines with aura (visual disturbances), so they should be used with caution and under medical supervision.
Choice B: A 28-year-old client who has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease is not the correct answer because they do not have a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives. Pelvic inflammatory disease is an infection that affects the female reproductive organs, such as the uterus, fallopian tubes, or ovaries. It can be caused by various bacteria, such as chlamydia or gonorrhea, and can lead to infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or chronic pelvic pain if left untreated. Oral contraceptives can help prevent pelvic inflammatory disease by creating a thick cervical mucus that blocks the entry of bacteria into the uterus.
Choice C: A 32-year-old client who has benign breast disease is not the correct answer because they do not have a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives. Benign breast disease is a term that refers to various noncancerous conditions that affect the breast tissue, such as fibrocystic changes, fibroadenomas, or mastitis. They can cause symptoms such as breast pain, tenderness, or lumps. Oral contraceptives can help reduce the symptoms of benign breast disease by regulating the hormonal fluctuations that influence breast tissue growth.
Choice D: A 38-year-old client who reports smoking one pack of cigarettes every day is the correct answer because they have a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives. Smoking is a habit that involves inhaling tobacco smoke, which contains harmful substances such as nicotine, tar, or carbon monoxide. Smoking can increase the risk of various diseases such as lung cancer, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), or cardiovascular disease. Oral contraceptives can further increase the risk of cardiovascular disease in smokers, especially those who are over 35 years old, by increasing blood pressure, cholesterol levels, and clotting factors. Therefore, oral contraceptives are not recommended for smokers and alternative methods of contraception should be used instead.
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