A nurse is assessing a client's pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). The nurse should recognize that an elevated PAWP indicates which of the following complications?
Hypotension
Hypovolemia
Cardiogenic shock
Left ventricular failure
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale:
A. Hypotension: Hypotension is typically associated with decreased preload and low PAWP rather than elevated values. An elevated PAWP reflects increased pressure in the left heart, which does not occur with simple hypotension alone.
B. Hypovolemia: Hypovolemia leads to decreased circulating blood volume, reducing preload and PAWP. It is typically marked by low filling pressures, not elevated wedge pressures.
C. Cardiogenic shock: Although cardiogenic shock can be associated with elevated PAWP due to poor cardiac output and fluid backup, it is not as specific a marker as left ventricular failure, which directly affects PAWP.
D. Left ventricular failure: Elevated PAWP reflects increased pressure in the left atrium and pulmonary circulation, which is a hallmark of left-sided heart failure. This elevation occurs because the failing left ventricle cannot efficiently pump blood forward.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Hematuria: Blood in the urine can occur with sickle cell disease due to renal papillary necrosis, but it is not specific to acute chest syndrome and does not require immediate emergency action in this context.
B. Sneezing: Sneezing is typically associated with upper respiratory infections or allergies and is not indicative of acute chest syndrome. It is not a critical symptom in this scenario.
C. Substernal retractions: Substernal retractions are a sign of respiratory distress and can indicate acute chest syndrome a life-threatening complication of sickle cell anemia. It involves pulmonary infiltration and can rapidly progress to hypoxia and respiratory failure, requiring urgent intervention.
D. Temperature 37.9° C (100.2° F): While fever in a sickle cell client should be closely monitored and reported, this temperature is low-grade. Alone, it does not immediately signal acute chest syndrome without accompanying respiratory symptoms.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Pain level of 1 on a scale of 0 to 10: A low pain score suggests effective pain management and is not associated with poor wound healing. In fact, well-controlled pain can facilitate mobility and participation in recovery activities, both of which support healing.
B. Capillary refill time 1 second: This finding reflects good peripheral perfusion, indicating adequate circulation and oxygen delivery to tissues, which are essential for optimal wound healing.
C. BMI 35: A BMI of 35 indicates obesity, which is a known risk factor for delayed wound healing. Excess adipose tissue reduces vascularity, increases tension on wound edges, and raises the risk of infection and dehiscence.
D. Oxygen saturation 97% on room air: Normal oxygen saturation ensures tissues are receiving sufficient oxygen to support cellular repair and regeneration. This value supports wound healing rather than delaying it.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.