A nurse is admitting an older adult client who has a suspected cognitive disorder. Which of the following inventories should be included as part of the admission assessment?
Brief Patient Health Questionnaire (Brief PHQ)
Abnormal Involuntary Movements Scale (AIMS)
Mental status examination (MSE)
Scale for Assessment of Negative Symptoms (SANS)
The Correct Answer is C
A. Brief Patient Health Questionnaire (Brief PHQ):
The Brief PHQ is a screening tool used to assess symptoms of depression. While it may be relevant to assess mood and emotional well-being, it is not specific to evaluating cognitive functioning or cognitive disorders.
B. Abnormal Involuntary Movements Scale (AIMS):
The AIMS is used to assess involuntary movements, particularly in individuals taking antipsychotic medications. It is not directly related to assessing cognitive disorders.
C,. Mental status examination (MSE)
Explanation:
When admitting an older adult client with a suspected cognitive disorder, including a mental status examination (MSE) as part of the assessment is crucial. The MSE is a structured assessment of a client's current cognitive functioning, emotional state, and thought processes. It helps to evaluate memory, attention, language, perception, orientation, mood, and other cognitive and emotional domains.
D. Scale for Assessment of Negative Symptoms (SANS):
The SANS is used to assess negative symptoms in individuals with schizophrenia. It focuses on features such as affective blunting, alogia, anhedonia, and other negative symptoms. While it may provide important information about a client's mental state, it is not primarily used to assess cognitive disorders.
Assessing cognitive function is a key component when evaluating older adult clients for cognitive disorders such as dementia or other cognitive impairments. The MSE provides valuable information to guide diagnosis and treatment planning for these conditions.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "I can see that you trust me, but you should share those feelings with your psychiatrist, not me."
While encouraging the client to discuss their feelings with a mental health professional is important, this response does not address the immediate safety concern presented by the client's intent to harm others.
B. "I will not violate our nurse-client relationship. The information we discuss will remain confidential between us."
This response is inappropriate because it implies that the nurse will keep the information confidential, even though the client's statement raises concerns about the safety of others.
C. "Because you are a minor, I have to share any information that I feel is important with your parents."
While parents may have the right to be informed about their minor child's well-being, this situation goes beyond parental involvement. The nature of the threat requires immediate intervention from appropriate professionals and authorities.
"D. I cannot promise that. I must share this information with other members of the team who are responsible for planning your care."
Explanation: The client's statement about having a desire to harm others, especially classmates and a school teacher, raises significant concerns about the safety and well-being of not only the client but also the potential victims. In cases where the client poses a risk of harm to themselves or others, the nurse has a duty to breach confidentiality to ensure the safety of all involved parties. This response conveys the nurse's ethical obligation to involve other members of the treatment team and appropriate authorities to address the potential threat.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This action might be premature. MAOIs (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors) are a class of antidepressants with specific dietary and medication interactions. They are typically considered when other classes of antidepressants have not been effective. It's important to exhaust other options before considering a switch to MAOIs.
B. Explain that antidepressants often take several weeks to be fully effective:
Explanation: Correct Answer. This is an appropriate response. Antidepressants, including citalopram, can take several weeks to show their full therapeutic effects. It's common for some symptoms to improve before others. Educating the client about the delayed onset of action is important to manage their expectations.
C. Tell the client that the provider will need to change citalopram to a different medication:
Explanation: It might be too early to consider changing the medication after just two weeks, especially since the client reports an improved appetite. Changes in dosage or medication should ideally be discussed with the provider after an adequate trial period.
D. Recommend a sleep study be done on the client:
Explanation: While sleep problems can be associated with depression, it might not be the most appropriate next step based solely on the information provided. It's more important to address the ongoing depressive symptoms before focusing solely on sleep.

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