A nurse is admitting a new client.
Which of the following steps of the nursing process is the nurse performing when formulating goals for a positive outcome?
Assessment.
Planning.
Evaluation.
Implementation.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Assessment Assessment is the first step of the nursing process, where the nurse collects data about the patient's condition. While this step is crucial for understanding the patient's needs, it does not involve formulating goals for a positive outcome. Therefore, it is not the correct choice in this context.
Choice B rationale:
Planning Planning is the step of the nursing process where the nurse formulates goals and develops a care plan to achieve those goals. This includes setting objectives for the patient's care and determining the best course of action. In this case, the nurse is formulating goals for a positive outcome, making choice B the correct answer.
Choice C rationale:
Evaluation Evaluation is the step where the nurse assesses the patient's response to the care provided and determines whether the goals have been met. While important, it does not involve the initial formulation of goals, so it is not the correct choice for this question.
Choice D rationale:
Implementation Implementation involves carrying out the plan of care, putting the planned interventions into action. It doesn't focus on goal formulation, so it is not the correct answer in this context.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Quality of practice involves the nurse's competence in providing care to patients and ensuring that the care meets established standards. Violating the quality of practice standard would typically involve issues related to the quality and safety of care provided. In this scenario, the nurse's violation is related to accessing a client's medical record without being involved in their care, which is an ethical breach rather than a violation of the quality of practice standard.
Choice B rationale:
Code of ethics is the standard of professional performance that the nurse is violating. Accessing a client's medical record without being involved in their care is a violation of the ethical principles outlined in the Code of Ethics for Nurses. This action breaches patient confidentiality and privacy, which are fundamental ethical obligations for nurses.
Choice C rationale:
Collaboration involves working effectively with other healthcare professionals to provide optimal patient care. Violations of the collaboration standard would typically involve issues related to teamwork, communication, and interdisciplinary relationships. The scenario described does not pertain to collaboration but rather concerns ethical conduct.
Choice D rationale:
Evidence-based practice refers to the integration of current research evidence into clinical decision-making and patient care. Violations of evidence-based practice would involve not following the latest research and best practices in patient care. In this case, the nurse's violation is related to ethical principles and patient privacy rather than evidence-based practice.
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice A, Choice B
Choice A rationale: Clostridium difficile is a spore-forming, gram-positive anaerobic bacillus that causes antibiotic-associated colitis. Transmission occurs via the fecal-oral route, primarily through contact with contaminated surfaces or hands. Protective gowns are essential during care to prevent spore transfer to clothing and subsequent environmental contamination. Spores resist alcohol-based sanitizers and persist on surfaces for months. Contact precautions, including gown use, reduce nosocomial spread. Normal white blood cell count is 4,000–11,000/mm³; elevated levels may indicate infection severity.
Choice B rationale: Isolation in a private room is critical for clients with confirmed Clostridium difficile infection due to the organism’s ability to form resilient spores that contaminate surfaces and equipment. Private rooms limit environmental exposure and reduce cross-contamination risk. C. difficile spores are resistant to routine cleaning agents and require bleach-based disinfectants. Diarrheal stool volume increases transmission risk. Normal stool frequency is 1–3 formed stools/day; 4–5 liquid stools/day indicates active infectious diarrhea requiring isolation.
Choice C rationale: N-95 respirators are designed for airborne pathogens such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis, measles virus, or varicella-zoster virus. Clostridium difficile is not airborne; it transmits via contact with contaminated surfaces or hands. Spores are shed in feces and do not aerosolize under normal conditions. Therefore, N-95 respirators offer no added protection against CDI. Airborne precautions are unnecessary unless aerosol-generating procedures are performed on patients with concurrent airborne infections. Respiratory rate normal range is 12–20 breaths/min.
Choice D rationale: Negative pressure rooms are used to contain airborne pathogens by maintaining lower air pressure inside the room, preventing contaminated air from escaping. Clostridium difficile does not spread via airborne particles but through contact with contaminated surfaces and feces. Thus, negative pressure rooms are not scientifically justified for CDI. Instead, contact isolation and environmental decontamination are prioritized. Room air exchanges are irrelevant to CDI control. Normal room air pressure is neutral unless airborne precautions are indicated.
Choice E rationale: Masking the client is a droplet precaution used for pathogens like influenza virus, Neisseria meningitidis, or SARS-CoV-2. Clostridium difficile does not transmit via respiratory droplets, so placing a mask on the client during transport does not reduce transmission risk. Instead, hand hygiene and contact precautions are essential. CDI spores are not expelled via coughing or sneezing. Droplet precautions are reserved for pathogens with particle size >5 µm. Normal oxygen saturation is ≥95% on room air.
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