A nurse is admitting a client who is 1 week postpartum and reports excessive vaginal bleeding. The nurse speaks a different language than the client. The client's partner and 10-year-old child are accompanying her. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to gather the client's admission data?
Allow the client's partner to translate.
Have the client's child translate.
Ask a nursing student who speaks the same language as the client to translate.
Request a female interpreter through the facility.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason:
Allow the client's partner to translate. While the partner may be well-intentioned, using a family member or friend as an ad-hoc interpreter can compromise the confidentiality of the information and may not accurately convey the client's medical concerns.
Choice B reason:
Have the client's child translate. Relying on a child to translate sensitive medical information is inappropriate, as it may burden the child and may lead to potential misunderstandings or omissions in communication.
Choice C reason:
Ask a nursing student who speaks the same language as the client to translate. Although a nursing student who speaks the same language as the client may be able to assist, using a professional interpreter is the preferred option. Professional interpreters have specific training in medical terminology and communication, ensuring the most accurate and effective exchange of information.
Choice D reason:
Using a professional interpreter is essential in situations where the healthcare provider and the client do not speak the same language. It ensures accurate communication, maintains confidentiality, and prevents misunderstandings. In this scenario, the nurse should request an interpreter who is proficient in the client's language to assist with the admission process.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Incorrect. The lithotomy position is not appropriate for this procedure, as it can cause discomfort and embarrassment to the client. The nurse should place the client in a left lateral Sims' position with the right knee flexed for better access to the rectum and to reduce pressure on the abdominal organs.
B. Incorrect. The nurse should avoid eliciting a vagal response, as it can cause bradycardia, hypotension, and syncope in some clients. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and stop the procedure if signs of vagal stimulation occur.
C. Incorrect. Oral bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that can cause abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and electrolyte imbalance. It is not indicated for fecal impaction, as it can worsen the condition by increasing the bulk and hardness of the stool. The nurse should administer an enema or a stool softener before attempting digital evacuation.
D. Correct. The nurse should insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall, breaking up the stool and removing it in small pieces. The nurse should use gentle pressure and avoid injuring the rectal mucosa. The nurse should also explain the procedure to the client and obtain informed consent before performing it.
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