A nurse is admitting a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Which of the following types of isolation precautions should the nurse initiate for the client?
Droplet
Protective
Contact
Airborne
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Droplet precautions are not appropriate for a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Droplet precautions are used to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that are spread by large respiratory droplets, such as influenza, pertussis, or meningitis. Droplet precautions require the use of a surgical mask, eye protection, and gloves when in close contact with the client.
Choice B reason: Protective precautions are not applicable for a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Protective precautions are used to protect immunocompromised clients from exposure to pathogens, such as those undergoing chemotherapy, organ transplantation, or stem cell transplantation. Protective precautions require the use of a HEPA filter, a positive pressure room, and a mask for the client when leaving the room.
Choice C reason: Contact precautions are not sufficient for a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Contact precautions are used to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that are spread by direct or indirect contact with the client or the client's environment, such as Clostridioides difficile, MRSA, or VRE. Contact precautions require the use of gloves and gowns when entering the room and the dedicated use of noncritical patientcare equipment.
Choice D reason: Airborne precautions are the correct type of isolation precautions for a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Airborne precautions are used to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that are spread by small respiratory droplets that can remain suspended in the air, such as tuberculosis, measles, or chickenpox. Airborne precautions require the use of a respirator, such as an N95 mask, a negative pressure room, and a mask for the client when leaving the room.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect. Cleansing the perineum from back to front can increase the risk of urinary tract infections, as it can introduce bacteria from the anal area to the urethra. The nurse should instruct the client to cleanse the perineum from front to back, using a mild soap and water, and to change the pad or underwear frequently to prevent bacterial growth.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect. Obtaining a prescription for an indwelling urinary catheter can increase the risk of urinary tract infections, as it can create a direct route for bacteria to enter the bladder. Indwelling catheters should be avoided unless absolutely necessary, and should be removed as soon as possible. The nurse should explore other bladder management options for the client, such as intermittent catheterization, condom catheter, or suprapubic catheter.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect. Offering the client the bedpan every 2 hours can increase the risk of urinary tract infections, as it can cause urinary stasis and bladder distension. The nurse should assess the client's bladder function and determine the optimal frequency of bladder emptying, which may vary depending on the type and level of spinal cord injury. The nurse should also monitor the client's urine output, color, odor, and clarity, and report any signs of infection, such as fever, chills, or flank pain.
Choice D reason: This is correct. Encouraging fluid intake at and between meals can decrease the risk of urinary tract infections, as it can flush out bacteria from the urinary tract and prevent urinary stasis and bladder distension. The nurse should advise the client to drink at least 2 liters of water per day, unless contraindicated by other medical conditions. The nurse should also educate the client about the benefits of cranberry juice, which can inhibit bacterial adhesion to the bladder wall and prevent infection.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: The oral mucosa is the most reliable indicator of central cyanosis because it reflects the oxygen saturation of the arterial blood. Central cyanosis occurs when the arterial blood has a low oxygen saturation due to a cardiopulmonary problem. The oral mucosa is less affected by peripheral factors such as temperature, vasoconstriction, or skin pigmentation.
Choice B reason: The conjunctivae are not a reliable indicator of central cyanosis because they can be affected by other conditions such as anemia, jaundice, or eye infections. The conjunctivae are the thin membranes that cover the white part of the eye and the inner surface of the eyelids.
Choice C reason: The ear lobes are not a reliable indicator of central cyanosis because they can be affected by peripheral factors such as temperature, vasoconstriction, or skin pigmentation. The ear lobes are the fleshy lower part of the external ear.
Choice D reason: The soles of the feet are not a reliable indicator of central cyanosis because they can be affected by peripheral factors such as temperature, vasoconstriction, or skin pigmentation. The soles of the feet are the bottom part of the feet.
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