A nurse is admitting a client who has been diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. Considering the most common cause of this condition, which test should the nurse anticipate will be performed?
A prostate examination
A blood glucose check
Genetic testing
Antistreptolysin-O titers
The Correct Answer is D
A. A prostate examination is typically performed for issues related to the prostate, such as benign prostatic hyperplasia or prostate cancer. It is not relevant to diagnosing or managing acute glomerulonephritis, which is related to kidney inflammation rather than prostate issues.
B. A blood glucose check is used to diagnose and manage diabetes. While diabetes can contribute to chronic kidney disease, it is not the primary test for diagnosing acute glomerulonephritis or identifying its most common cause.
C. Genetic testing is useful for diagnosing inherited conditions or genetic predispositions to diseases. However, acute glomerulonephritis is typically caused by an infection or an autoimmune reaction, and genetic testing is not the primary diagnostic tool for this condition.
D. Antistreptolysin-O (ASO) titers are tests used to detect antibodies produced in response to a streptococcal infection. Elevated ASO titers indicate a recent streptococcal infection, which is the most common cause of post-infectious acute glomerulonephritis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. BPH is a common condition in older men that causes the prostate gland to enlarge, obstructing the urethra and leading to difficulty urinating, urinary retention, and pelvic pain. The symptoms described, including urinary frequency, weak urinary stream, severe pelvic pain, and a significantly elevated post- void residual urine volume, are consistent with BPH.
B. ESRD can cause urinary symptoms. However, the presentation in this case is more consistent with a urinary obstruction, not a kidney failure issue. ESRD typically involves more systemic symptoms like fatigue, edema, and electrolyte imbalances.
C. This is unlikely given the patient's age and lack of significant comorbidities. Additionally, the primary issue appears to be urinary obstruction, not a decrease in renal perfusion.
D. This is a chronic condition that typically presents with flank pain, and it does not usually cause acute urinary retention.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. This method is the most reliable for measuring fluid retention. Weight changes are a direct indicator of fluid balance because fluid retention or loss affects body weight. By comparing the client's current weight to their post-dialysis weight, you can determine the amount of fluid they have retained.
B. Creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are indicators of kidney function rather than fluid volume status. Elevated levels can indicate worsening kidney function but do not directly measure fluid retention or overload.
C. While assessing skin turgor and peripheral edema can provide some clues about fluid overload, these signs are less precise and subjective compared to weight measurements. Skin turgor changes and edema can be influenced by various factors, including skin elasticity and other conditions, making them less reliable for accurately measuring fluid volume changes since the last dialysis.
D. Crackles in lung sounds can indicate pulmonary congestion due to fluid overload, but this method is not as precise for quantifying the amount of fluid retained. Crackles suggest fluid accumulation in the lungs, which is a sign of more severe fluid overload but does not provide a specific measurement of fluid volume compared to changes in body weight.
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