A female client has undergone surgery to remove a large struvite kidney stone. Based on the cause of struvite stones, which medication therapy should the nurse anticipate will be ordered to prevent recurrence of the stones?
Calcium gluconate
Antibiotics
Tamsulosin
Phosphate binders
The Correct Answer is B
A. Calcium gluconate is used to treat or prevent calcium deficiencies and to manage conditions related to calcium imbalances, such as hypocalcemia. It is not typically used to prevent struvite stones.
B. Antibiotics are the most appropriate choice for preventing the recurrence of struvite stones. Since struvite stones are associated with urinary tract infections caused by urease-producing bacteria, antibiotic therapy is aimed at eliminating these infections. By treating or preventing UTIs, the conditions that lead to struvite stone formation are addressed, reducing the likelihood of recurrence.
C. Tamsulosin is an alpha-blocker used to relax the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck to improve urine flow in conditions like benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). It is not specifically used for preventing struvite stones.
D. Phosphate binders are used to reduce phosphate levels in the blood, which is important in managing conditions such as chronic kidney disease (CKD) where phosphate levels can be elevated.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. This is an inflammation of the peritoneum, the lining of the abdominal cavity. It's a common complication of peritoneal dialysis (PD). Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. Fluid discharge from the catheter site and an increased white blood cell count are also indicative of infection, supporting the diagnosis of peritonitis.
B. This is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart. Symptoms typically include chest pain, shortness of breath, and irregular heartbeat.
C. This is inflammation of the pleura, the membranes surrounding the lungs. Symptoms include chest pain, shortness of breath, and dry cough.
D. This would present with severe abdominal pain, hypotension, and signs of shock. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea are not typical symptoms.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. BPH is a common condition in older men that causes the prostate gland to enlarge, obstructing the urethra and leading to difficulty urinating, urinary retention, and pelvic pain. The symptoms described, including urinary frequency, weak urinary stream, severe pelvic pain, and a significantly elevated post- void residual urine volume, are consistent with BPH.
B. ESRD can cause urinary symptoms. However, the presentation in this case is more consistent with a urinary obstruction, not a kidney failure issue. ESRD typically involves more systemic symptoms like fatigue, edema, and electrolyte imbalances.
C. This is unlikely given the patient's age and lack of significant comorbidities. Additionally, the primary issue appears to be urinary obstruction, not a decrease in renal perfusion.
D. This is a chronic condition that typically presents with flank pain, and it does not usually cause acute urinary retention.
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