A nurse instructs a class of older adult women about Kegel exercises. In which of the following urinary conditions would Kegel exercises be effective?
Functional incontinence
Stress incontinence
Urinary retention
Fecal incontinence
The Correct Answer is B
A. Functional incontinence: Functional incontinence occurs when a person has difficulty reaching the toilet due to physical or cognitive impairments, such as mobility issues or dementia. Kegel exercises, which focus on strengthening the pelvic floor muscles, would not directly address the underlying causes of functional incontinence.
B. Stress incontinence: Stress incontinence is characterized by the involuntary leakage of urine during activities that increase abdominal pressure, such as coughing, sneezing, laughing, or exercising. Kegel exercises are specifically designed to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can help support the bladder and reduce the occurrence of stress incontinence.
C. Urinary retention: Urinary retention refers to the inability to empty the bladder completely. While Kegel exercises may help improve bladder control, they are not typically used to address urinary retention, which often requires other interventions such as medications, catheterization, or surgery.
D. Fecal incontinence: Fecal incontinence involves the involuntary leakage of stool. Kegel exercises are not effective for addressing fecal incontinence, as they primarily target the pelvic floor muscles involved in urinary control, not bowel control. Treatment for fecal incontinence may include dietary modifications, medications, pelvic floor rehabilitation, or surgical interventions, depending on the underlying cause.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]
Explanation
A. Prime the blood tubing with dextrose 5% in water:
Priming the blood tubing with dextrose 5% in water is not appropriate for a blood transfusion. Blood tubing should be primed with normal saline, not dextrose solutions, to prevent hemolysis of the blood components.
B. Check vital signs before transfusion:
Before initiating a blood transfusion, it's essential to assess the client's vital signs, including temperature, pulse, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. Monitoring vital signs before, during, and after the transfusion helps identify any adverse reactions promptly.
C. Insert an IV with a 13-gauge needle:
Using a 13-gauge needle for IV insertion is not appropriate for a blood transfusion. Typically, a smaller gauge needle, such as 18 or 20 gauge, is used for venous access during a blood transfusion to minimize discomfort and reduce the risk of hemolysis.
D. Transfuse the blood product within 5 hr after removing it from refrigeration:
Blood products should be transfused within a specific timeframe after removal from refrigeration to minimize the risk of bacterial growth and subsequent infection. Typically, this timeframe is within 4 hours for packed red blood cells and within 24 hours for platelets. Adhering to the recommended timeframe ensures the safety and efficacy of the transfusion.
E. Check the expiration date of the blood product with a second nurse:
Verifying the expiration date of the blood product with a second nurse or healthcare provider is a crucial step to ensure patient safety and prevent the administration of expired blood products. This double-check process helps mitigate the risk of administering outdated or expired blood components.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) An older adult who is confused and has urinary frequency:
This client is at the greatest risk for a fall due to several factors. Confusion increases the likelihood of disorientation and impaired judgment, leading to accidents. Urinary frequency may necessitate frequent trips to the bathroom, increasing the chances of falls, especially if the client is disoriented or unsteady on their feet.
B) An older adult with hearing impairment:
While hearing impairment can contribute to a fall risk by limiting the client's ability to hear warnings or instructions, it may not pose as immediate a risk as confusion and urinary frequency, which directly affect mobility and judgment.
C) A client who has a dressing on his foot due to a pressure ulcer:
While having a dressing on the foot due to a pressure ulcer increases the risk of falls by potentially affecting the client's gait and balance, it may not be as significant a risk factor as confusion and urinary frequency, which directly impact the client's ability to safely navigate their environment.
D) A client who has osteoarthritis and uses a walker:
Although osteoarthritis and the use of a walker can contribute to mobility issues and an increased risk of falls, they may not present as immediate a risk as confusion and urinary frequency, which can lead to more unpredictable and hazardous situations.
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