A nurse instructs a class of older adult women about Kegel exercises. In which of the following urinary conditions would Kegel exercises be effective?

Functional incontinence

Stress incontinence

Urinary retention

Fecal incontinence

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Functional incontinence: Functional incontinence occurs when a person has difficulty reaching the toilet due to physical or cognitive impairments, such as mobility issues or dementia. Kegel exercises, which focus on strengthening the pelvic floor muscles, would not directly address the underlying causes of functional incontinence.

B. Stress incontinence: Stress incontinence is characterized by the involuntary leakage of urine during activities that increase abdominal pressure, such as coughing, sneezing, laughing, or exercising. Kegel exercises are specifically designed to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can help support the bladder and reduce the occurrence of stress incontinence.

C. Urinary retention: Urinary retention refers to the inability to empty the bladder completely. While Kegel exercises may help improve bladder control, they are not typically used to address urinary retention, which often requires other interventions such as medications, catheterization, or surgery.

D. Fecal incontinence: Fecal incontinence involves the involuntary leakage of stool. Kegel exercises are not effective for addressing fecal incontinence, as they primarily target the pelvic floor muscles involved in urinary control, not bowel control. Treatment for fecal incontinence may include dietary modifications, medications, pelvic floor rehabilitation, or surgical interventions, depending on the underlying cause.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Hydrochlorothiazide: Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that promotes sodium and water excretion, leading to decreased blood volume and decreased potassium excretion. While it can cause hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion, it does not typically lead to hyperkalemia.

B) Spironolactone: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that inhibits aldosterone, leading to decreased sodium reabsorption and increased potassium retention. This mechanism of action can predispose clients to hyperkalemia due to potassium retention. Additionally, spironolactone can cause hyponatremia by promoting the excretion of sodium and water. Therefore, clients receiving spironolactone are at risk for both hyperkalemia and hyponatremia.

C) Furosemide: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle, promoting sodium, chloride, potassium, and water excretion. While it can cause hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion, it does not typically lead to hyperkalemia.

D) Metolazone: Metolazone is a thiazide-like diuretic that acts similarly to hydrochlorothiazide by promoting sodium and water excretion. Like hydrochlorothiazide, it can cause hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion but does not typically lead to hyperkalemia.

A. Prime the blood tubing with dextrose 5% in water. B. Check vital signs before transfusion C. Insert an IV with a 13-gauge needle D. Transfuse the blood product within 5 hr after removing it from refrigeration E. Check the expiration date of the blood product with a second nurse

Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]

Explanation

A. Prime the blood tubing with dextrose 5% in water:
Priming the blood tubing with dextrose 5% in water is not appropriate for a blood transfusion. Blood tubing should be primed with normal saline, not dextrose solutions, to prevent hemolysis of the blood components.
B. Check vital signs before transfusion:
Before initiating a blood transfusion, it's essential to assess the client's vital signs, including temperature, pulse, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. Monitoring vital signs before, during, and after the transfusion helps identify any adverse reactions promptly.
C. Insert an IV with a 13-gauge needle:
Using a 13-gauge needle for IV insertion is not appropriate for a blood transfusion. Typically, a smaller gauge needle, such as 18 or 20 gauge, is used for venous access during a blood transfusion to minimize discomfort and reduce the risk of hemolysis.
D. Transfuse the blood product within 5 hr after removing it from refrigeration:
Blood products should be transfused within a specific timeframe after removal from refrigeration to minimize the risk of bacterial growth and subsequent infection. Typically, this timeframe is within 4 hours for packed red blood cells and within 24 hours for platelets. Adhering to the recommended timeframe ensures the safety and efficacy of the transfusion.
E. Check the expiration date of the blood product with a second nurse:
Verifying the expiration date of the blood product with a second nurse or healthcare provider is a crucial step to ensure patient safety and prevent the administration of expired blood products. This double-check process helps mitigate the risk of administering outdated or expired blood components.

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A nurse instructs a class of older adult women about Kegel exercises. In which of the following urinary conditions would Kegel exercises be effective?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is providing instruction to a new nurse about caring for clients who are receiving diuretic therapy to treat heart failure. The nurse should explain that which of the following medications puts clients at risk for both hyperkalemia and hyponatremia?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is planning to perform a blood transfusion for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]

Explanation

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