A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a 19-year-old female client who is at 18 weeks of gestation. The client presents with reports of nausea and vomiting for the past several weeks, which has worsened in severity. The client states that she has been unable to retain even clear fluids for the past 48 hours. The client reports no pain but has a history of migraines and asthma.
Exhibits
The Correct Answer is []
• Hyperemesis gravidarum: The client’s symptoms such as severe nausea and vomiting, inability to retain clear fluids, and positive ketones in urinalysis suggest that she is most likely experiencing hyperemesis gravidarum, a pregnancy complication characterized by severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and electrolyte disturbance.
• Actions to take: The nurse should administer the prescribed antiemetic medication to help control the client’s nausea and vomiting. The nurse should also provide IV fluid replacement to correct the client’s dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.
• Parameters to monitor: The nurse should monitor the client’s urine output to assess her hydration status. The nurse should also monitor the client’s electrolyte levels, as electrolyte imbalances can occur with severe vomiting and dehydration. If the client’s condition does not improve or worsens, the nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While applying a spermicidal cream or jelly to the diaphragm is recommended to increase its effectiveness, the use of a vaginal lubricant is not typically recommended.
Choice B rationale
Washing the diaphragm with mild soap and warm water is recommended after each use. However, using detergent soap may cause irritation and is not typically recommended.
Choice C rationale
The diaphragm can be inserted up to 6 hours before intercourse. This allows for flexibility and spontaneity.
Choice D rationale
The diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, not 2 to 4 hours. This is to ensure that all sperm are killed by the spermicide.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choiced. Exert upward pressure on the presenting part.
Choice A rationale:
Administering a tocolytic medication can help reduce uterine contractions, but it is not the immediate priority in this emergency situation. The primary goal is to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord to restore blood flow to the fetus.
Choice B rationale:
Wrapping the cord in a sterile towel moistened with warm sterile normal saline is important to prevent the cord from drying out and to maintain its temperature. However, this action does not address the immediate need to relieve pressure on the cord.
Choice C rationale:
Applying oxygen via facemask to the client can help improve maternal oxygenation, which indirectly benefits the fetus. However, it does not directly address the immediate issue of relieving pressure on the umbilical cord.
Choice D rationale:
Exerting upward pressure on the presenting part is the most critical action to take first.This maneuver helps to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord, thereby restoring blood flow and oxygen to the fetus, which is essential in this emergency situation.
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