A nurse in an urgent care clinic is contributing to the plan of care for a child who has suspected epiglottitis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse plan to include?
Initiate contact precautions.
Monitor pulse oximetry.
Obtain a throat culture.
Administer epinephrine IM.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
The nurse should not initiate contact precautions for a child with suspected epiglottitis. Epiglottitis is primarily caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B, and it spreads through respiratory droplets. Contact precautions are not necessary as the transmission occurs through droplets, and standard precautions should be sufficient.
Choice B reason:
The nurse should monitor pulse oximetry. Epiglottitis is a condition where the epiglottis becomes inflamed and swollen, potentially blocking the airway. Monitoring the child's pulse oximetry helps assess their oxygen saturation levels, which is crucial in determining if there is adequate oxygenation. If the oxygen saturation drops significantly, immediate intervention might be needed to maintain the child's airway and prevent hypoxia.
Choice C reason:
Obtaining a throat culture is not an appropriate intervention for suspected epiglottitis. In cases of suspected epiglottitis, the priority is to ensure the child's airway is maintained and that they receive appropriate medical attention promptly. Throat culture collection involves swabbing the throat to identify the infectious agent and is not a priority in this urgent situation.
Choice D reason:
Administering epinephrine IM is not indicated for suspected epiglottitis. Epinephrine is typically used to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) and not for managing epiglottitis. The primary focus in epiglottitis is securing the airway and providing appropriate medical treatment, which might include antibiotics and respiratory support.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
"I should call my provider if I notice thick white discharge in my underwear.”
Choice A reason:
The client stating, "I will need to have this device replaced every 3 years,” is incorrect. Subdermal progesterone contraception devices, such as Nexplanon, can typically last for up to 3 years, not needing replacement within that time frame. The rationale behind this is that these devices release a steady amount of progesterone to prevent pregnancy, and they are designed to be effective for the specified duration.
Choice B reason:
The statement, "This device will protect me from STIs,” in Choice B is incorrect. Subdermal progesterone contraception devices do not provide protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Their primary function is to prevent pregnancy by inhibiting ovulation, thickening cervical mucus, and altering the uterine lining, but they do not offer any defense against STIs. It is essential for the client to understand that barrier methods, such as condoms, are necessary for STI protection.
Choice C reason:
The correct answer, "I should call my provider if I notice thick white discharge in my underwear,” is an accurate statement. Thick white discharge could be indicative of a vaginal infection, such as yeast infection, which might require medical attention. It is crucial for the client to report any changes in vaginal discharge to their healthcare provider for proper evaluation and treatment.
Choice D reason:
The statement in Choice D, "I need to decrease the amount of milk I drink while I have this device,” is incorrect. There is no association between subdermal progesterone contraception devices and milk consumption. The device does not interfere with dairy intake or affect its metabolism. This information is unrelated to the proper use or management of the contraception device.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The fracture does not cross through the bone. Choice A reason:
The statement in Choice A is incorrect because it describes a greenstick fracture as the bone bending and causing a microscopic fracture line. This is not true for a greenstick fracture. A greenstick fracture is an incomplete fracture where the bone bends and partially breaks on one side while remaining intact on the other side. The rationale for this is that pediatric bones are more flexible than adult bones, and when a force is applied, they tend to bend rather than completely break.
Choice B reason:
Choice B is the correct answer. A greenstick fracture does not cross through the bone; it involves only one side of the bone being broken while the other side remains intact. This type of fracture is common in children because their bones are still developing and contain more collagen, making them more flexible and prone to bending rather than breaking completely.
Choice C reason:
The statement in Choice C is incorrect because it describes a different type of fracture. A compressed fracture involves the bone being crushed or shortened, leading to a raised area at the fracture site. This is not characteristic of a greenstick fracture, which involves bending and partial breakage rather than compression.
Choice D reason:
The statement in Choice D is incorrect because it describes a complete fracture that completely divides the bone into two separate pieces. A greenstick fracture, as explained earlier, is an incomplete fracture and does not completely divide the bone.
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