A nurse in an emergency department is reviewing the medical record of a client who is having an acute myocardial infarction.
Which of the following findings places the client at risk if he receives alteplase?
Family history of malignant hypertension.
Hip arthroplasty 1 week ago.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
Acute renal failure 6 months ago.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is B. Hip arthroplasty 1 week ago.
Alteplase is a drug that dissolves blood clots by converting plasminogen to plasmin. It can be used for acute ischemic stroke, but it has some contraindications that depend on the indication and the type of administration of the drug. Some common contraindications for alteplase are hypersensitivity, active internal bleeding, history of intracranial hemorrhage, bleeding disorders, and high blood pressure. Other contraindications may vary depending on the specific condition and the time window of treatment. Alteplase can cause serious or fatal bleeding as a side effect.
Choice A is wrong because family history of malignant hypertension is not an absolute contraindication for alteplase, although uncontrolled hypertension (>185 mmHg SBP or >110 mmHg DBP) is.
Choice C is wrong because chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is not a contraindication for alteplase, although it may increase the risk of pulmonary hemorrhage.
Choice D is wrong because acute renal failure 6 months ago is not a contraindication for alteplase, although current use of direct thrombin inhibitors or direct factor Xa inhibitors is.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are <120/80 mmHg for normal, 120-129/<80 mmHg for elevated, 130-139/80-89 mmHg for stage 1 hypertension, and ≥140/≥90 mmHg for stage 2 hypertension.
Normal ranges for platelet count are 150,000 to 450,000 platelets per microliter of blood.
Normal ranges for INR are 0.8 to 1.2 for people who are not taking blood thinners and 2 to 3 for people who are taking warfarin.
Normal ranges for aPTT are 25 to 35 seconds for people who are not taking blood thinners and 46 to 70 seconds for people who are taking heparin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Tell the client, “You seem to be very upset.”.
This is an example of a therapeutic communication technique that validates the client’s feelings and encourages them to express their emotions verbally rather than physically. It also shows empathy and respect for the client’s perspective.
Choice A is wrong because engaging the panic alarm is not the first action to take when interacting with an agitated client.
The nurse should first try to calm the client down by using verbal and nonverbal communication skills, such as maintaining eye contact, speaking in a calm and clear voice, and avoiding sudden movements or gestures.
Engaging the panic alarm should be done only if the client becomes violent or poses a threat to themselves or others.
Choice B is wrong because using a face shield with a mask when providing care to the client is not relevant to the situation.
This is a personal protective equipment (PPE) that is used to prevent exposure to infectious agents or body fluids, not to manage agitation.
Using a face shield with a mask may also increase the client’s anxiety or paranoia, as they may perceive it as a sign of hostility or fear.
Choice D is wrong because initiating seclusion protocol is not appropriate for a client who is agitated, pacing, and speaking loudly.
Seclusion is a restrictive intervention that involves isolating the client in a locked room to prevent harm to themselves or others.
It should be used only as a last resort when less restrictive measures have failed or are contraindicated, and only with a provider’s order and close monitoring.
Secluding an agitated client may escalate their behavior and violate their rights.
Normal ranges for agitation are not applicable, as agitation is not a quantifiable parameter.
However, some tools that can be used to assess agitation include the Richmond AgitationSedation Scale (RASS), which ranges from -5 (unarousable) to +4 (combative), and the Agitated Behavior Scale (ABS), which ranges from 14 (no agitation) to 56 (severe agitation).
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This prescription is complete because it includes the medication name, dose, route, and frequency.
A complete prescription should also include the client’s name, date, time, signature of the prescriber, and any special instructions.
Choice A is wrong because it does not specify the dose of cimetidine.
PO twice daily is not enough information to administer the medication safely.
Choice B is wrong because it does not specify the frequency of tetracycline.
200 mg PO is not enough information to administer the medication safely.
Choice C is wrong because it does not specify the route of epoetin alfa.
150 units/kg three times weekly is not enough information to administer the medication safely.
Normal ranges for digoxin are 0.5 to 2 ng/mL for heart failure and 0.8 to 2 ng/mL for atrial fibrillation.
Normal ranges for cimetidine are 50 to 150 ng/mL.
Normal ranges for tetracycline are 1 to 10 mcg/mL.
Normal ranges for epoetin alfa are not applicable as it is a synthetic hormone that stimulates red blood cell production.
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