A nurse in a psychiatric unit is caring for several clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for group therapy?
A client exhibiting psychotic behavior
A client who has been taking amitriptyline for 3 months for depression
A client who is experiencing alcohol intoxication
A client admitted 12 hr ago for acute mania
The Correct Answer is B
A. A client exhibiting psychotic behavior
Group therapy is generally not recommended for clients who are actively exhibiting psychotic behavior. Psychotic behavior can include hallucinations, delusions, and severe thought disturbances, which might impede the individual's ability to effectively participate and benefit from group therapy. Such clients often require more immediate and individualized attention to address their acute symptoms.
B. A client who has been taking amitriptyline for 3 months for depression
This is the correct choice. A client who has been taking amitriptyline for 3 months for depression is likely to have their symptoms more stabilized and under better control compared to acute situations. They might be at a stage where they can engage in group therapy to discuss their experiences, coping strategies, and learn from others in a similar situation.
C. A client who is experiencing alcohol intoxication
Group therapy is not appropriate for clients who are currently intoxicated, as their ability to actively participate and engage in therapeutic discussions may be compromised. Addressing the effects of alcohol intoxication and ensuring the client's safety would be a priority before considering group therapy.
D. A client admitted 12 hours ago for acute mania
Clients admitted for acute mania often require stabilization and intervention to manage their manic symptoms. In the early stages of admission, they might not be in a state conducive to group therapy. Once their acute symptoms are better controlled and they have had time to stabilize, they could potentially benefit from group therapy as part of their overall treatment plan.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The client responds to questions with disorganized speech:
Disorganized speech is a hallmark of acute mania, often reflecting racing thoughts, pressured speech, and difficulty staying on topic.
B. The client reports that voices are telling him to write a novel:
Reporting that voices are telling the client to write a novel suggests auditory hallucinations, which can occur in various psychiatric conditions, not specifically indicative of acute mania.
C. The client's spouse reports that the client has recently gained weight:
Weight gain is not a typical hallmark of acute mania. In fact, during manic episodes, individuals might experience decreased appetite and sleep, leading to potential weight loss.
D. The client is dressed in all black:
Dressing in all black is not a specific sign of acute mania. While changes in clothing choices or appearance can sometimes be associated with mood changes, this finding alone is not indicative of acute mania.
Correct Answer is ["2"]
Explanation
The nurse is preparing to administer benztropine 2 mg IM every 12 hours. The concentration of the available benztropine is 1 mg/mL.
To calculate the volume (mL) of the medication needed for the prescribed dose, you can use the formula:
Volume (mL) = Dose (mg) / Concentration (mg/mL)
Plugging in the values:
Volume (mL) = 2 mg / 1 mg/mL = 2 mL
So, the nurse should administer 2 mL of benztropine 1 mg/mL for each dose. Since we're looking for a whole number, we round to the nearest whole number, which is 2 mL.
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