A nurse in a mental health facility is caring for a client who has antisocial personality disorder and alcohol dependency. The nurse should encourage the client to participate in which of the following groups?
Dual diagnosis treatment
Codependency support
Psychodrama
Crisis intervention
The Correct Answer is A
A. Dual diagnosis treatment programs are specifically designed for individuals who have both a mental health disorder (such as ASPD) and a substance use disorder (alcohol dependency in this case). These programs integrate treatment approaches that address both conditions concurrently. They typically involve a combination of medication management, psychotherapy, and support groups tailored to dual diagnosis clients. Encouraging the client to participate in a dual diagnosis treatment group can help address the complex interplay between ASPD and alcohol dependency.
B. Codependency support groups focus on relationships where one person may enable or support dysfunctional behavior in another person. While relevant in certain contexts, codependency support groups may not directly address the primary issues of ASPD and alcohol dependency. Therefore, this option is less appropriate compared to dual diagnosis treatment for this client.
C. Psychodrama is a form of therapy where clients act out real-life situations to explore and gain insights into their feelings, behaviors, and relationships. While psychodrama can be beneficial for emotional expression and role-playing, it may not directly target the core symptoms and challenges of ASPD and alcohol dependency. Therefore, it may not be the most effective intervention for this client compared to dual diagnosis treatment.
D. Crisis intervention focuses on immediate stabilization and support during a mental health crisis or acute episode. While crisis intervention may be necessary at times, it is not a comprehensive treatment approach for ASPD and alcohol dependency. Long-term management and therapeutic interventions, such as dual diagnosis treatment, are typically needed to address these chronic conditions effectively.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["2.5"]
Explanation
To administer the correct dose of sertraline, which is 50 mg, when the available oral solution concentration is 20 mg/mL,
Volume = Dose / Concentration.
So, for a 50 mg dose using a 20 mg/mL solution, the calculation would be 50 mg divided by 20 mg/mL, resulting in 2.5 mL.
Therefore, the nurse should administer 2.5 mL of the sertraline oral solution.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Allowing the client to choose activities may lead to decision fatigue or overwhelm due to the manic state.
B. Initiating physical exercise could help in redirecting excess energy, but it must be carefully monitored.
C. Encouraging the client to spend time with others might increase stimulation and potentially exacerbate the mania.
D. Clarity and specificity in communication are essential when caring for a client experiencing mania. Manic episodes can affect a client's ability to concentrate and process information. Providing clear instructions and explanations helps ensure the client understands what is expected and can follow through with necessary self-care and treatment activities.
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