A nurse in a gynecology office is caring for a client who reports vaginal itching and discharge in the last week.
The discharge is described as thick and “smelly.”. The client reports pain with urination and sexual intercourse.
The discharge became worse after their menstrual period this month.
The client has been treated for STIs in the past and is currently sexually active in a new relationship.
The provider has been notified, and a vaginal swab for culture and nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) has been performed.
Based on the information found in the client’s medical record, which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate receiving from the provider?
Instruct the client to avoid alcohol for 72 hr after treatment.
Administer metronidazole 2 g PO x 1 dose.
Perform an oatmeal sitz bath.
Have the client douche every morning and night.
Recommend the client’s partner receive treatment.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Instructing the client to avoid alcohol for 72 hr after treatment is a common instruction given when a client is prescribed certain medications, such as metronidazole, due to the potential for a disulfiram-like reaction. However, this choice does not directly address the client’s symptoms of vaginal itching and discharge.
Choice B rationale
The client’s symptoms are indicative of Bacterial Vaginosis (BV), a common vaginal infection in women of reproductive age. Metronidazole is a medication commonly used to treat this infection. A single dose of 2 g orally is a typical treatment regimen.
Choice C rationale
An oatmeal sitz bath can help soothe irritated skin and reduce inflammation, but it does not treat the underlying cause of the client’s symptoms.
Choice D rationale
Douching is generally not recommended as it can disrupt the normal balance of bacteria in the vagina and can lead to further complications.
Choice E rationale
Recommending the client’s partner receive treatment is important in cases of sexually transmitted infections to prevent reinfection. However, this choice does not directly address the client’s immediate need for treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While determining the viability of the fetus is an important aspect of prenatal care, it is not the primary purpose of an ultrasound in this scenario. The client’s report of feeling the baby moving suggests that the fetus is likely viable.
Choice B rationale
The primary purpose of the ultrasound in this scenario is to locate the placenta. Heavy, red vaginal bleeding at 38 weeks of gestation could indicate a complication such as placenta previa, where the placenta covers the cervix. An ultrasound can help confirm this diagnosis.
Choice C rationale
Measuring the biparietal diameter is a method used to estimate fetal weight and gestational age. However, in this scenario, the client is already known to be at 38 weeks of gestation, and the sudden onset of heavy, red vaginal bleeding is a more immediate concern.
Choice D rationale
Assessing fetal lung maturity is typically done when there is a risk of preterm delivery. In this scenario, the client is already at 38 weeks of gestation, which is considered full term. The immediate concern is the heavy, red vaginal bleeding.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice D rationale
Facial edema, or swelling, can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure. It is important for pregnant women to seek medical attention if they notice sudden or severe swelling in their face, hands, or fingers.
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