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A nurse at a provider's office is caring for a 32-year-old female client.

Exhibits

Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.

The nurse should prepare to reinforce teaching with the client about a

with a prescription of .
Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"A"}

The nurse should prepare to reinforce teaching with the client about a diabetic diet with a prescription of insulin therapy.

So, correct options are:

  1. A. diabetic diet
  2. A. insulin therapy
  3. Diabetic diet:
    1. The client has a history of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) during her previous pregnancy and is currently experiencing elevated blood glucose levels, as indicated by the oral glucose tolerance test and fasting glucose levels.
    2. A diabetic diet is essential to help manage blood glucose levels and prevent complications for both the mother and the baby.
  4. Insulin therapy:
    1. The client is already adhering to a diabetic diet and is taking insulin as prescribed, indicating that insulin therapy is part of her current management plan.
    2. Her glucose levels are still elevated despite dietary management, which means insulin therapy is necessary to maintain optimal glucose levels and reduce the risk of complications associated with GDM.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A weak cry is not a typical manifestation of neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS). NAS usually presents with a high-pitched, persistent cry due to central nervous system irritability.

Choice B rationale

Decreased muscle tone is not common in NAS. Infants with NAS often exhibit hypertonia, characterized by increased muscle tone and rigidity.

Choice C rationale

This statement is correct because an exaggerated Moro reflex is a common sign of NAS, indicating central nervous system hyperactivity in response to withdrawal from maternal drugs.

Choice D rationale

An infant with NAS does not console easily. They are often difficult to soothe due to irritability and discomfort from withdrawal symptoms. .

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Testing for GBS at around 36 weeks of gestation is standard practice to identify carriers and prevent neonatal GBS infections through intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis if necessary.

Choice B rationale

Cesarean birth is not indicated solely based on a positive GBS status. The primary intervention is intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis to reduce the risk of neonatal infection.

Choice C rationale

Routine antibiotic administration during the last weeks of pregnancy is not standard practice; antibiotics are given during labor if GBS is present to prevent transmission to the baby.

Choice D rationale

GBS infection does not cause hearing loss in newborns. The primary concern is neonatal sepsis, pneumonia, or meningitis, not hearing loss.

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