A nurse assesses a client’s respiratory status. Which observation indicates that the client is having difficulty breathing?

Diaphragmatic breathing

Controlled breathing

Pursed-lip breathing

Use of accessory muscles

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Diaphragmatic breathing:

Diaphragmatic breathing, also known as abdominal or deep breathing, is a normal and effective way of breathing. It involves the contraction and relaxation of the diaphragm, allowing for efficient lung expansion. This is a healthy and efficient breathing technique.

B. Controlled breathing:

Controlled breathing refers to a deliberate and regulated breathing pattern. It can include techniques such as paced breathing, where the individual consciously controls the rate and depth of their breaths. Controlled breathing is generally considered a positive and intentional approach to managing respiratory function.

C. Pursed-lip breathing:

Pursed-lip breathing is a breathing technique where the individual breathes in through the nose and exhales through pursed lips. This method is often taught to individuals with certain respiratory conditions, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), to help improve lung function and alleviate shortness of breath. Pursed-lip breathing can be a helpful strategy in specific situations.

D. Use of accessory muscles:

The use of accessory muscles indicates that the person is experiencing increased difficulty in breathing. Accessory muscles, such as the neck and shoulder muscles, are not typically heavily involved in breathing under normal circumstances. When these muscles are visibly working during breathing, it suggests increased respiratory effort and can be a sign of respiratory distress or difficulty.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Monitor daily weights and urine output.

Monitoring daily weights and urine output is an important aspect of managing heart failure or other cardiac conditions. However, in the context of a client with chest pain, ST elevation, and elevated cardiac enzymes (indicating a myocardial infarction), the immediate focus is on addressing the acute event and reducing myocardial oxygen demand.

B. Administer TPA to prevent further damage as a result of a clot.

Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) is a thrombolytic medication that can be administered to dissolve blood clots in the coronary arteries during a myocardial infarction. However, the administration of TPA has a specific timeframe within which it is most effective. It is crucial to know the elapsed time since the onset of symptoms, and there are specific criteria and contraindications for its use.

C. Provide client education on medications and diet to prevent recurrence.

Client education on medications, lifestyle modifications, and dietary changes is an essential component of long-term management for preventing recurrence of cardiovascular events. However, during the acute phase of a myocardial infarction, the immediate priority is to stabilize the client and address the acute event, with education being a secondary consideration.

D. Reduce pain and myocardial oxygen demand.

During the acute phase of a myocardial infarction, reducing pain and myocardial oxygen demand is the highest priority. This is typically achieved through the administration of medications such as nitroglycerin for vasodilation and opioids for pain relief. Other interventions to optimize oxygen supply and demand, such as supplemental oxygen and reperfusion strategies, may also be considered.

A. Retinal Hemorrhage B. Ventricular hypertrophy C. Cerebrovascular Disease D. Venous insufficiency E. Transient Ischemic Attacks (TIAs)

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]

Explanation

A. Retinal Hemorrhage

Uncontrolled hypertension can damage the blood vessels in the eyes, leading to retinal hemorrhages. This can result in vision problems and, in severe cases, vision loss.

B. Ventricular Hypertrophy

Uncontrolled hypertension causes the heart to pump against increased resistance, leading to the thickening and enlargement of the left ventricle. Ventricular hypertrophy is a response to the increased workload on the heart and is associated with an increased risk of heart failure.

C. Cerebrovascular Disease

Hypertension is a major risk factor for cerebrovascular diseases, including strokes. Elevated blood pressure can damage the blood vessels in the brain, increasing the risk of stroke. Strokes can have serious consequences, affecting various neurological functions.

D. Venous Insufficiency

Venous insufficiency is not typically directly associated with uncontrolled hypertension. It is more commonly related to problems with the venous system, such as damaged valves in the veins, leading to poor blood flow back to the heart. While hypertension can affect arteries, venous insufficiency is a distinct condition.

E. Transient Ischemic Attacks (TIAs)

Uncontrolled hypertension increases the risk of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs), which are brief episodes of neurological dysfunction caused by temporary disruption of blood flow to the brain. TIAs are often considered warning signs of an increased risk of stroke.

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A nurse assesses a client’s respiratory status. Which observation indicates that the client is having difficulty breathing?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]

Explanation

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