A Medical-Surgical nurse is preparing to administer Furosemide to a patient who is having severe heart failure. Which route of administration should the nurse use to provide the fastest and most complete absorption of Furosemide?
Intramuscular.
Subcutaneous.
Oral.
Intravenous.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Intramuscular administration involves injecting medication into muscle tissue, which may result in slower and variable absorption rates. It is not the optimal route for providing fast and complete absorption of Furosemide.
Choice B rationale:
Subcutaneous administration delivers medication into the fatty tissue beneath the skin. While it can be used for some medications, it generally results in slower absorption compared to intravenous administration, and it may not be suitable for Furosemide, which requires rapid action in a severe heart failure situation.
Choice C rationale:
Oral administration involves taking medication by mouth, and the absorption process can be influenced by factors such as gastric emptying and gastrointestinal transit time. In an urgent scenario of severe heart failure, oral administration might be too slow and unpredictable.
Choice D rationale:
Intravenous administration allows for the fastest and most complete absorption of Furosemide. By directly delivering the medication into the bloodstream, it bypasses the absorption barriers of the gastrointestinal tract, leading to rapid onset of action and predictable effects, which is crucial in managing acute heart failure. This route is commonly used in critical situations where immediate therapeutic effects are needed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. Transparent dressing.
Choice A rationale:
Transparent dressings are appropriate for stage I pressure ulcers. These dressings provide a moist environment that promotes healing and protects the wound from external contaminants. They are also transparent, allowing the nurse to monitor the wound without removing the dressing. As stage I pressure ulcers involve intact skin with non-blanchable redness, these dressings aid in preventing friction and shear forces that could exacerbate the injury.
Choice B rationale:
Alginate dressings (Choice B) are not suitable for stage I pressure ulcers. Alginate dressings are highly absorbent and are generally used for wounds with moderate to heavy exudate, such as infected wounds or those with necrotic tissue. They may not be the best choice for a stage I pressure ulcer, which is characterized by superficial skin involvement without exudate or necrosis.
Choice C rationale:
Hydrogel dressings (Choice C) are beneficial for wounds with minimal to no exudate, but they are more appropriate for partial-thickness wounds, burns, or dry wounds. They provide a moist environment and promote autolytic debridement. However, in the case of a stage I pressure ulcer, where the skin is intact and there is no exudate, hydrogel dressings may not be the ideal choice.
Choice D rationale:
Wet-to-dry gauze dressings (Choice D) involve placing moist saline gauze onto a wound bed and allowing it to dry before removal. This method is used for mechanical debridement of wounds with necrotic tissue, and it's not suitable for a stage I pressure ulcer. In fact, using wet-to-dry dressings on a superficial wound could cause trauma and hinder healing.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should avoid assessing the popliteal pulse bilaterally at the same time. The popliteal pulse is located behind the knee and is relatively deep. Applying pressure on both sides of the knee to assess this pulse simultaneously can obstruct blood flow to the lower extremities. This is a particularly important consideration for clients with compromised circulation, such as those with peripheral vascular disease. Assessing this pulse sequentially is a safer approach.
Choice A rationale:
Assessing the femoral pulse bilaterally at the same time is generally acceptable. The femoral pulse is located in the groin area, and assessing it bilaterally doesn't impede blood flow significantly.
Choice C rationale:
Assessing the brachial pulse bilaterally at the same time is generally acceptable. The brachial pulse is located in the upper arm, and simultaneous assessment is unlikely to cause circulatory compromise.
Choice D rationale:
Assessing the carotid pulse bilaterally at the same time is discouraged. The carotid arteries are located in the neck, and applying bilateral pressure here can lead to reduced blood flow to the brain, potentially causing syncope (fainting) or other adverse effects. It's safer to assess this pulse sequentially.
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