A man calls the nurses’ station stating that his wife, who delivered four days ago, is happy one minute and crying the next. The man says, "She was never like this before the baby was born. What would be the best response by the nurse?

Tell him to ignore the mood swings, as they will go away in a few days.

Reassure him this behavior is normal following birth and is only a concern if it lasts more than two weeks.

Tell him that his wife might need antidepressants and to call the provider.

Advise him the baby unattended with his wife.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Ignoring the mood swings is not an appropriate response because it may be a sign of postpartum mood changes that need to be monitored.

B. Mood swings in the postpartum period are common and often due to hormonal changes. This is normal unless it persists beyond two weeks, at which point it may indicate postpartum depression.

C. Suggesting antidepressants immediately is premature; mood swings are common in the postpartum period, and treatment is not necessary unless they persist or worsen.

D. Advising the husband to leave the wife unattended is unsafe and inappropriate. Ensuring the wife has support during this time is important.

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Correct Answer is B, D, A, C

Explanation

Urine hCG is used to confirm pregnancy and is the first test performed. The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test is typically done around 15-20 weeks to screen for fetal abnormalities. The Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT) is typically performed between 24-28 weeks to screen for gestational diabetes. Group B beta strep testing is usually done between 35-37 weeks to screen for bacterial infection.

A. "You are a great candidate for external version. We will schedule it for this week." B. "You will have to be in active labor before we do an external version." C. "You are not a candidate for external version because you have a placenta previa." D. "You are not a candidate for external version because your baby is in a brooch presentation."

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. External version is not recommended in cases of placenta previa as it can cause hemorrhage or placenta separation.

B. External version is typically not performed in placenta previa because of the risk of bleeding or placental separation.

C. A breech presentation combined with placenta previa is a contraindication for external version, as attempting the version could cause severe complications.

D. The presence of a breech presentation, in this case, is not the primary reason for the inability to perform an external version. The main concern is placenta previa.

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A man calls the nurses’ station stating that his wife, who delivered four days ago, is happy one minute and crying the next. The man says, "She was never like this before the baby was born. What would be the best response by the nurse?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

59. When a women is being evaluated for her pregnancy, there are a number of tests and procedures that are performed from the beginning of the pregnancy to the end. Please put the test and procedure the order that they are supposed to occur in the normal pregnancy.

Correct Answer is B, D, A, C

Explanation

A client who is 36 weeks with a breech presentation and diagnosed with a placenta previa asks the nurse if she can have an external version and deliver vaginally. The best answer by the nurse would be which of the following?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A woman had a recommended caloric intake of 2000 calories per day before becoming pregnant. She delivers and is breastfeeding. How many calories per day is recommended for her now?

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