A patient is being prepared for an amniocentesis. The patient is a G2P1 and is 34 weeks gestation suffering from pre eclampsia. The patient asks what the purpose of this amniocentesis is. The best response from the nurse would be:

To identify abnormal fetal cells.

To detect metabolic disorders.

To determine fetal lung maturity.

To identify the sex of the fetus.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. To identify abnormal fetal cells: This is typically the purpose of amniocentesis earlier in pregnancy to check for genetic disorders, not at 34 weeks.

B. To detect metabolic disorders: Metabolic disorders are usually identified through newborn screening after birth rather than through late pregnancy amniocentesis.

C. To determine fetal lung maturity: At 34 weeks gestation, determining fetal lung maturity is critical, especially in cases of preeclampsia, as early delivery might be necessary.

D. To identify the sex of the fetus: The sex of the fetus is usually determined earlier in pregnancy if necessary, not at 34 weeks, and it is not the primary purpose in this context.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. May 1 is not correct; this would be too early by several months.

B. July 8 is not correct; this date is too far out for the due date based on the LMP provided.

C. To calculate the due date using Naegele's rule, you add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP) and then subtract 3 months. Given: LMP: April 15th Step 1: Add 7 days to the LMP: April15th + 7 days= April 22nd Step 2: Subtract 3 months: April22nd – 3 months = January 22nd

D. January 22 is close but not the correct date by the standard calculation of 280 days.

A. if positive at birth the patient should have a C-Section to prevent passing it on to the fetus. B. There is often a small sore on the penis or labia that can last up to two weeks C. Gonorrhea is treated with antifungal medication. D. Vaginal discharge will have a fishy odor. E. This is an STD responsible for ophthalmia neonatorum in babies so they are required to be treated with erythromycin. F. it can present as a yellow or greenish discharge from the penis

Correct Answer is ["E","F"]

Explanation

A. A C-section is not routinely indicated for gonorrhea unless there are active lesions. It is treated with antibiotics, and the baby is given prophylactic erythromycin to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum.

B. Gonorrhea typically does not present with a small sore; this description is more typical of herpes simplex virus.

C. Gonorrhea is treated with antibiotics (e.g., ceftriaxone), not antifungal medications.

D. Vaginal discharge from gonorrhea is typically yellow or greenish and purulent, not fishy in odor (which is typical of bacterial vaginosis).

E. Gonorrhea can cause ophthalmia neonatorum, and newborns are treated with erythromycin to prevent this.

F. Gonorrhea often causes a yellow or greenish discharge from the penis, a common symptom in men.

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A patient is being prepared for an amniocentesis. The patient is a G2P1 and is 34 weeks gestation suffering from pre eclampsia. The patient asks what the purpose of this amniocentesis is. The best response from the nurse would be:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse working in the prenatal clinic has a patient who states her last menstrual period was April 15th. Using Nagelle's rule, what is her due date?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A patient comes to the clinic to be tested for Gonorrhea. Which of the following is true of this particular STD? Select all that apply

Correct Answer is ["E","F"]

Explanation

Place the following in order from first to last

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