A male patient presents with complaints of chronic stomach pain and is diagnosed with a Helicobacter pylori infection. The physician decides to initiate triple therapy. Which combination of medications is most appropriate for this treatment?

Amoxicillin, Clarithromycin, and Omeprazole

Ciprofloxacin, Metronidazole, and Ranitidine

Erythromycin, Amoxicillin, and Famotidine

Metronidazole, Tetracycline, and Bismuth subsalicylate

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Amoxicillin, Clarithromycin, and Omeprazole: This is the most common combination used in triple therapy for H. pylori eradication. It includes two antibiotics (Amoxicillin and Clarithromycin) to eliminate the bacteria, and a proton pump inhibitor (Omeprazole) to reduce stomach acid and promote healing.

B. Ciprofloxacin, Metronidazole, and Ranitidine: Ciprofloxacin and Metronidazole are not typically part of the standard regimen for H. pylori infection. Ranitidine is an H2-receptor antagonist, not commonly used in current treatment protocols for H. pylori.

C. Erythromycin, Amoxicillin, and Famotidine: Erythromycin is not part of the standard H. pylori treatment regimen, and Famotidine is an H2-receptor antagonist, which is less effective than proton pump inhibitors for H. pylori.

D. Metronidazole, Tetracycline, and Bismuth subsalicylate: This combination is used in quadruple therapy for H. pylori infections, but it is not the most common initial treatment.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Apply a heating pad to the abdomen: This is incorrect and potentially harmful, as applying heat to the abdomen can increase blood flow and worsen inflammation or risk rupture of the appendix.

B. Administer a cleansing enema: Enemas should not be administered for suspected appendicitis as they may cause irritation and increase the risk of perforation.

C. Administer oral analgesics as needed: Oral analgesics are contraindicated since the patient should be NPO, and strong pain relief might mask the symptoms of a ruptured appendix.

D. Place the patient on NPO status: The highest priority preoperative intervention is to place the patient on NPO (nothing by mouth) status to prevent aspiration during anesthesia, a standard preoperative practice, especially for abdominal surgeries.

A. Intestinal obstruction B. Hypovolemic shock C. Electrolyte imbalance D. Sepsis

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Intestinal obstruction: While peritonitis can lead to intestinal obstruction, it is not the most immediate life-threatening complication compared to hypovolemic shock or sepsis.

B. Hypovolemic shock: This is a critical condition that can occur due to severe fluid loss, which might be a concern in peritonitis due to fluid shifts into the abdominal cavity. However, the patient’s signs of systemic infection (fever, elevated heart rate, low blood pressure) suggest that sepsis is a more imminent threat.

C. Electrolyte imbalance: Electrolyte imbalances are possible due to fluid loss, but they would be secondary to the more urgent concern of hypovolemic shock.

D. Sepsis: Sepsis is the highest priority due to the patient’s vital signs and symptoms indicating a systemic infection. Early recognition and treatment of sepsis are crucial to prevent organ failure and other severe complications.

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A male patient presents with complaints of chronic stomach pain and is diagnosed with a Helicobacter pylori infection. The physician decides to initiate triple therapy. Which combination of medications is most appropriate for this treatment?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient with suspected appendicitis is being prepared for surgery. Which of the following preoperative interventions should the nurse prioritize?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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