A male client who has been taking a high-dose of a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) comes to the clinic reporting gastric pain and blood in his stool. The healthcare provider discontinues the NSAIDs and prescribes esomeprazole. Which information should the nurse include in this client's te’ching plan?

Notify the healthcare provider of the passage of black stools.

Call the clinic if diarrhea or headache occur when taking esomeprazole.

Once pain subsides, NSAID therapy can be resumed.

Resume a diet that consists of milk, cream, and bland foods.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Notify the healthcare provider of the passage of black stools: This is the correct response. Black stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a serious adverse effect of NSAID use. It's im’ortant for the client to report this symptom promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

B) Call the clinic if diarrhea or headache occur when taking esomeprazole: While it's im’ortant to report any adverse effects of medication to the healthcare provider, diarrhea and headache are not specific to esomeprazole and may not warrant immediate attention unless severe or persistent.

C) Once pain subsides, NSAID therapy can be resumed: This statement is incorrect. The client should avoid NSAIDs in the future, as they are likely the cause of the gastric pain and gastrointestinal bleeding. Resuming NSAID therapy would increase the risk of recurrent bleeding.

D) Resume a diet that consists of milk, cream, and bland foods: This statement is incorrect. While bland foods may be easier to tolerate during acute gastric pain, they do not address the underlying issue of gastrointestinal bleeding. Additionally, dairy products like milk and cream may exacerbate symptoms in some individuals.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Remove the patch and consult with the healthcare provider about the client’s pain resolution: While it’s essential to assess the need for continued pain management, removing the patch without replacing it could lead to inadequate pain control, especially if the client still requires opioid analgesia. Additionally, fentanyl patches are typically left in place for their prescribed duration, and removing them prematurely could disrupt the pain management plan.

B) Place the patch on the client's sh’ulder and leave both patches in place for 12 hours: Applying a new patch without removing the previous one could result in a higher-than-intended dose of fentanyl, increasing the risk of opioid toxicity. Leaving both patches in place simultaneously is not recommended.

C) Apply the new patch in a different location after removing the original patch: This is the correct action. Applying the new patch in a different location helps prevent skin irritation and ensures consistent drug absorption. Rotating patch sites according to the manufacturer's in’tructions is important for optimal medication delivery.

D) Administer an oral analgesic and evaluate its effectiveness before applying the new patch: While oral analgesics may provide temporary relief, they may not be as effective as transdermal fentanyl for managing chronic pain, especially if the client has been on a stable regimen of fentanyl patches. Additionally, delaying the application of the new patch could lead to inadequate pain control.

A. Hold the dose and notify the pharmacy to stop dispensing the next premixed doses. B. Hold the dose and notify the healthcare provider of the changes in the laboratory studies. C. Begin the infusion and monitor the client's bl’od urea nitrogen (BUN), serum creatinine, and liver function tests. D. Begin the infusion and submit a drug reaction report to the nursing supervisor.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Hold the dose and notify the pharmacy to stop dispensing the next premixed doses: This action may prevent further administration of fluconazole, but it does not address the underlying concern of rising liver enzyme levels. Holding the dose and notifying the healthcare provider directly would be more appropriate.

B) Hold the dose and notify the healthcare provider of the changes in the laboratory studies: This is the correct response. RisIng liver enzyme levels, indIcated by an increasing trend in aspartate aminotransferase (AST), suggest potential liver dysfunction or damage, which can be a serious adverse effect of fluconazole. The nurse should hold the dose and promptly inform the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

C) Begin the infusion and monitor the client's bl’od urea nitrogen (BUN), serum creatinine, and liver function tests: Initiating the infusion without addressing the rising liver enzyme levels could potentially worsen liver function. It is essential to hold the dose and inform the healthcare provider before proceeding with further administration.

D) Begin the infusion and submit a drug reaction report to the nursing supervisor: While it's im’ortant to document adverse reactions and submit reports as appropriate, the priority in this situation is to hold the dose and notify the healthcare provider to address the rising liver enzyme levels.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is preparing to apply the client’s scheduled fentanyl transdermal patch. The nurse notes the previously applied patch is intact on the client’s upper back and the client reports no pain. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is administering IV fluconazole to a client who has systemic candidiasis. After reviewing the client's di’gnostic studies, the nurse identifies a rising trend in the liver enzyme levels for aspartate aminotransferase (AST). Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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