A lab technician calls to tell the nurse that their client's calcium level is 6.3 mg/dL. How will the nurse proceed with this information? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

read back the calcium level result to the lab technician.

document the time the call was received & the lab technician's name and date of birth

report the elevated calcium level to the client's physician.

confirm the client's full name, date of birth, & medical record number with the lab technician.

document the low calcium level in the client's electronic medical record.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : B,C,D

A. Reading back the calcium level result to the lab technician: Reading back results to the lab technician is a good practice to ensure accurate communication. The nurse verifies that they have received the correct information and confirms the accuracy of the result.

B. Document the time the call was received & the lab technician's name and date of birth. This was not selected because while documenting the time of the call and the lab technician's information may be useful for record-keeping purposes, it is not directly related to the immediate management of the client's low calcium level. Therefore, it is not essential to the immediate actions required in response to the lab result.

C. Reporting the elevated calcium level to the client's physician: An abnormally low calcium level (hypocalcemia) of 6.3 mg/dL requires prompt notification to the client's physician for further evaluation and intervention.

D. Confirming the client's full name, date of birth, & medical record number with the lab technician: Verifying the client's identity and medical record number ensures that the lab results are correctly matched to the right patient, minimizing the risk of errors in patient care.

E. Documenting the low calcium level in the client's electronic medical record: Documenting the calcium level in the client's electronic medical record ensures that the result is recorded for future reference and continuity of care. Accurate documentation is essential for tracking the client's health status and treatment outcomes.

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]

Explanation

A. Sexually transmitted infections (STIs): Assessing the client's knowledge of STIs is crucial following the initiation of sexual activity to ensure understanding of risks and preventive measures. It enables the nurse to provide education on STI transmission, symptoms, prevention methods (such as condom use), and the importance of regular STI screening.

B. The need for contraception: Assessing the client's understanding of contraception is essential to prevent unintended pregnancies. The nurse can explore the client's knowledge of contraceptive methods, their effectiveness, correct usage, and availability. Providing education on contraceptive options empowers the client to make informed decisions about protecting their sexual health.

C. Facts vs. myths about sex: Assessing the client's understanding of facts and myths surrounding sex helps identify any misconceptions or gaps in knowledge. This allows the nurse to provide accurate information about sexual anatomy, physiology, reproductive health, and healthy sexual practices. Addressing myths promotes sexual health literacy and reduces the risk of misinformation influencing behavior.

D. Hormonally-induced decrease in vaginal lubrication: Assessing hormonal changes affecting vaginal lubrication is less relevant in this context, as it primarily applies to physiological changes in older individuals or those experiencing hormonal fluctuations due to menopause or medical conditions. It is not typically a concern immediately following a first sexual experience in adolescence.

E. Erectile dysfunction: Assessing knowledge of erectile dysfunction is more pertinent in males and is typically not a primary concern immediately following a first sexual experience for a female client. While it is valuable to address sexual health comprehensively, focusing on topics directly relevant to the client's situation is paramount for effective assessment and education.

A. polyuria. B. retention. C. oliguria. D. anuria.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Polyuria: Polyuria refers to abnormally large volume of urine output, typically exceeding 2.5 to 3 liters per day in adults. It is often associated with conditions such as diabetes mellitus, diabetes insipidus, or certain medications that increase urine production. Urinating 250 mL over 24 hours does not meet the criteria for polyuria.

B. Retention: Urinary retention refers to the inability to completely empty the bladder, leading to accumulation of urine. It is characterized by difficulty initiating urination or incomplete bladder emptying. Urinating 250 mL over 24 hours does not indicate urinary retention.

C. Oliguria: Oliguria is defined as diminished urine output, typically less than 400 mL per day in adults. It is a common sign of kidney dysfunction or acute kidney injury. Urinating 250 mL over 24 hours falls within the range of oliguria, indicating decreased urine production compared to normal.

D. Anuria: Anuria is the absence of urine production or excretion, typically defined as urine output less than 100 mL per day. It is often indicative of severe kidney dysfunction, renal failure, or obstruction of the urinary tract. While the client's urine output of 250 mL over 24 hours is low, it does not meet the criteria for anuria.

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A lab technician calls to tell the nurse that their client's calcium level is 6.3 mg/dL. How will the nurse proceed with this information? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is talking with a 14-year-old female client who has just had her first sexual experience with a boy. At this time, the nurse should assess the client's knowledge of: (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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