A client with diabetes has returned from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) after a below-the-knee amputation (BKA) of the left leg.
Which physician’s order should the nurse implement?

Administer morphine 2-4 mg IV prn for pain.

Apply a figure of 8 pressure dressing starting day two post-operatively.

Administer antibiotics as prescribed.

Apply ice to the stump for 60-90 minutes.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

The correct answer is Choice A. After a below-the-knee amputation (BKA), pain management is crucial. Administering morphine 2-4 mg IV prn for pain is an appropriate physician’s order to implement. Pain can be severe after amputation, and effective pain management can improve patient comfort, reduce anxiety, and aid in recovery. Applying a figure of 8 pressure dressing starting day two post-operatively (Choice B) is not typically done after a BKA7. The operative dressing and splint should be maintained, and the wound should be kept clean, dry, and intact. Administering antibiotics as prescribed (Choice C) is important, but it is not the first action to take. Pain management is the priority immediately after surgery. Applying ice to the stump for 60-90 minutes (Choice D) is not typically done after a BKA7. The operative dressing and splint should be maintained, and the wound should be kept clean, dry, and intact.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

People with Type 1 diabetes have little or no insulin that can be released. This is because their pancreatic β-cells, which produce insulin, are destroyed by an autoimmune process. Without insulin, glucose cannot be taken up into cells to be used for energy. Oral antihyperglycemic agents work by increasing the release of insulin or increasing the body’s sensitivity to insulin, so they are not effective in Type 1 diabetes where there is an absolute insulin deficiency.

Choice B rationale

The cost of oral antihyperglycemic agents is not the primary reason they are not used in Type 1 diabetes. The main issue is the lack of insulin production, which these medications cannot address.

Choice C rationale

People with Type 1 diabetes do not typically have resistance to their endogenous insulin. Insulin resistance is more commonly associated with Type 2 diabetes.

Choice D rationale

While hypoglycemia can occur with the use of some antihyperglycemic agents, this is not the primary reason these medications are not used in Type 1 diabetes. The main issue is the absolute deficiency of insulin.

A. Smaller doses of both drugs can be used with this method. B. This combination facilitates the thrombolysis more quickly. C. The heparin provides anticoagulation until the warfarin becomes effective. D. This combination provides immediate anticoagulation.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

While it might seem that smaller doses of both drugs could be used when they are prescribed together, this is not the primary reason for using heparin and warfarin together. Both drugs have different mechanisms of action and are used for their unique therapeutic effects.

Choice B rationale

The combination of heparin and warfarin does not facilitate thrombolysis more quickly. Thrombolysis is the process of breaking down clots, and while these medications can prevent the formation of new clots, they do not actively break down existing ones.

Choice C rationale

Heparin and warfarin are often used together in the treatment of thrombophlebitis because they provide different benefits. Heparin acts quickly to prevent further clotting and allows the body to naturally break down existing clots. Warfarin, on the other hand, takes several days to become effective. Therefore, heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation until the warfarin becomes effective.

Choice D rationale

While it’s true that the combination of heparin and warfarin provides immediate anticoagulation, this is primarily due to the action of heparin. Warfarin takes several days to become effective, so it does not contribute to the immediate anticoagulant effect.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A client with diabetes has returned from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) after a below-the-knee amputation (BKA) of the left leg. Which physician’s order should the nurse implement?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is explaining to a patient why oral antihyperglycemic agents are not effective in Type 1 diabetes. What is the reason?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice B rationale

Choice C rationale

Choice D rationale

A client is receiving heparin sodium 1000 units per hour via an infusion and warfarin sodium 2.5 mg PO for thrombophlebitis in the left leg. The nurse educates the client that heparin and warfarin are prescribed together because:

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Choice B rationale

Choice C rationale

Choice D rationale

The nurse is aware that a client taking an antibiotic that causes diarrhea should be taught about:

What clinical manifestation should the nurse assess for in a patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and ketoacidosis?

A patient with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) consumes 15 TUMS antacid tablets daily. What risk does the nurse understand this patient is facing?

A client with diabetes has returned from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) after a below-the-knee amputation (BKA) of the left leg. Which physician’s order should the nurse implement?

A patient is recovering from an episode of diabetic ketoacidosis and reports feeling “anxious, shaky, and sweaty.”. What should be the nurse’s initial action?

The client newly diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes is to be discharged in the morning and has received no instruction on diabetes. What should be the nurse’s teaching priority?

The client has been receiving vancomycin 1 gram IV every 12 hours for 2 days. What nursing actions are appropriate when administering this medication? (Select all that apply)

A client with diabetes has returned from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) after a below-the-knee amputation (BKA) of the left leg.
Which physician’s order should the nurse implement?