A client with cirrhosis of the liver is having numerous, liquid, incontinent stools, and continues to be confused. In reviewing the client's laboratory studies, the nurse identifies an elevated serum ammonia level. Based on this finding, which prescription is most important for this client to receive?

Loperamide.

Furosemide.

Lactulose.

Intravenous (IV) human albumin.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Loperamide: Although it treats diarrhea, loperamide would worsen ammonia buildup by reducing bowel transit time. It doesn’t address the underlying hepatic encephalopathy causing confusion in cirrhosis.

B. Furosemide: This loop diuretic is used to manage ascites or edema, not elevated ammonia. It doesn’t treat the neurological symptoms caused by hepatic encephalopathy or improve stool-based ammonia excretion.

C. Lactulose: Lactulose lowers serum ammonia by trapping it in the colon and promoting its excretion through diarrhea. It directly treats confusion related to hepatic encephalopathy, making it the most important intervention here.

D. Intravenous (IV) human albumin: Albumin helps restore oncotic pressure in cases of ascites or low serum protein but does not affect ammonia levels or mental status. It supports fluid balance, not toxin elimination.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Electromyography: Electromyography assesses electrical activity in muscles and is used to diagnose neuromuscular disorders. It is not relevant to evaluating bleeding tendencies or pinpoint skin spots, which suggest a hematologic issue like thrombocytopenia.

B. Skin biopsy: A skin biopsy might help diagnose dermatologic conditions, but it is invasive and not the initial step when systemic drug side effects like petechiae are suspected. The presence of red spots suggests a possible blood disorder requiring laboratory confirmation first.

C. Complete blood count: A CBC is essential to evaluate for thrombocytopenia, a known adverse effect of zidovudine. Pinpoint red spots, or petechiae, are often linked to low platelet counts, which require prompt detection and management to prevent serious complications.

D. Allergy test: Allergy testing identifies hypersensitivity reactions, typically associated with rashes or itching. Petechiae are not commonly caused by allergic reactions but are more indicative of blood abnormalities, making this test less immediately relevant.

A. The client with a small bowel obstruction who has a nasogastric tube that is draining greenish fluid. B. The client with a bowel obstruction due to a volvulus who is experiencing abdominal rigidity. C. The client who had surgery yesterday and is experiencing a paralytic ileus with absent bowel sounds. D. The client with an obstruction of the large intestine who is experiencing abdominal distention.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. While the presence of greenish fluid in a nasogastric tube can indicate a small bowel obstruction, this finding alone does not necessarily indicate an immediate life-threatening condition. The client should be monitored, but this is not the priority.

B. Abdominal rigidity in the context of a volvulus (twisting of the bowel) can indicate bowel ischemia or perforation, which is a surgical emergency. Immediate intervention is needed to prevent further complications such as sepsis or peritonitis.

C. A paralytic ileus is a common postoperative complication and often resolves with time. While the absence of bowel sounds is concerning, it is a routine finding in this situation and does not require immediate attention unless there are signs of further complications.

D. Abdominal distention in a large bowel obstruction can indicate a need for further assessment and treatment. However, compared to a volvulus with abdominal rigidity, this situation is less urgent and does not represent an immediate life-threatening emergency.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client who is receiving zidovudine reports the appearance of pinpoint, red, round spots on the skin. Which result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

After receiving report on an inpatient acute care unit, which client should the nurse assess first?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

An adult client receives a prescription for diphenhydramine 15 mL PO every 12 hours PRN for pruritus. The bottle is labeled, "Diphenhydramine 12.5 mg/5 mL." What is the total daily dose in mg that the client receives? (Enter numerical value only.)

Exhibits Click to indicate which client goal is being met by each of the client data. Each column must have at least one response selected.

Exhibits Choose the most likely options for the information missing from the statements by selecting from the lists of options provided. Based on the client's condition, the priority need will be to addressdropdown. In addition, he will need interventions to preventdropdown.

An older adult client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for assessment of a recent onset of dementia. The nurse notices that in the evening this client often becomes restless, confused, and agitated. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

The nurse is reviewing the recommended preventative care for clients with asthma, chronic bronchitis, and emphysema. Which health care measure is most important for the nurse to recommend to these clients?

The nurse is setting up the equipment to assist with a sigmoidoscopy while the practical nurse (PN) positions the client in a flat prone position. Which action should the nurse implement?

An older adult client with a history of heart failure is admitted with influenza and requests assistance to sit up in bed to eat lunch. The nurse observes the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) wearing a gown and gloves to assist the client. Which action should the nurse take?

Which oral medication can the nurse safely cut in half?