A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed a low-potassium diet. Which food choice indicates to the nurse that the client understands the dietary restrictions?

Baked potato with skin.

Orange juice.

White rice.

Banana smoothie.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Baked potato with skin is high in potassium (about 900 mg), unsuitable for CKD, where impaired renal excretion risks hyperkalemia, causing cardiac arrhythmias. White rice is low-potassium, aligning with dietary restrictions, demonstrating understanding of the need to limit potassium intake in renal disease.

Choice B reason: Orange juice contains high potassium (about 500 mg per cup), dangerous in CKD, as reduced glomerular filtration increases hyperkalemia risk, affecting cardiac conduction. White rice, with minimal potassium, complies with restrictions, indicating the client’s understanding of safe dietary choices for kidney function.

Choice C reason: White rice is low in potassium (about 50 mg per cup), appropriate for CKD, where the kidneys cannot excrete excess potassium, risking hyperkalemia and arrhythmias. Choosing white rice shows the client understands the low-potassium diet, supporting safe management of renal disease and electrolyte balance.

Choice D reason: Banana smoothie is high in potassium (about 400 mg per banana), contraindicated in CKD, where hyperkalemia risks cardiac instability due to poor renal clearance. White rice, low in potassium, reflects dietary compliance, demonstrating the client’s understanding of restrictions to prevent electrolyte imbalances.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Administering warfarin with an INR of 4.8 is dangerous, as it exceeds the therapeutic range (2.0–3.0), indicating excessive anticoagulation. This risks bleeding, as warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Notifying the provider ensures dose adjustment or reversal, preventing hemorrhage, making this action unsafe.

Choice B reason: An INR of 4.8 indicates over-anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation, increasing bleeding risk due to warfarin’s inhibition of clotting factors. Notifying the provider is critical for dose reduction or vitamin K administration, addressing the pathophysiological risk of hemorrhage, ensuring patient safety and preventing life-threatening complications.

Choice C reason: Encouraging green leafy vegetables, high in vitamin K, counteracts warfarin, lowering INR, but is inappropriate without provider guidance at INR 4.8, risking bleeding. Provider notification ensures controlled management, as unregulated dietary changes disrupt anticoagulation stability, making this action potentially harmful.

Choice D reason: Monitoring for bleeding is important but secondary to notifying the provider at INR 4.8, indicating critical over-anticoagulation. Immediate provider intervention adjusts warfarin or administers reversal agents, preventing hemorrhage. Monitoring delays urgent action needed to correct the clotting factor imbalance, making it less immediate.

A. Acetaminophen 650 mg PO PRN. B. Olanzapine 30 mg PO at bedtime. C. Thiamine, USP 100 mg PO daily. D. Ondansetron 8 mg IV PRN.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Acetaminophen is hepatotoxic, metabolized by the liver via cytochrome P450 to NAPQI, which depletes glutathione, causing necrosis in hepatitis. A compromised liver from alcohol or viral hepatitis increases toxicity risk, even at standard doses. Contacting the provider ensures safer analgesics, preventing further liver damage in this high-risk client.

Choice B reason: Olanzapine, an antipsychotic, manages schizophrenia by blocking dopamine D2 receptors. It is metabolized by the liver but has low hepatotoxicity risk compared to acetaminophen in hepatitis. No immediate contraindication exists, as it controls psychosis without significantly worsening liver function, making it safe to administer without delay.

Choice C reason: Thiamine (vitamin B1) is essential in hepatitis, particularly with alcohol abuse, preventing Wernicke’s encephalopathy from deficient glucose metabolism. It is liver-safe and beneficial, supporting neurological function without toxicity. Administering thiamine is appropriate, making it unnecessary to contact the provider before implementation.

Choice D reason: Ondansetron, an antiemetic, controls nausea in hepatitis via serotonin 5-HT3 receptor blockade. It is metabolized by the liver but has minimal hepatotoxicity, safe in liver disease. No contraindication exists, as it alleviates symptoms without worsening hepatitis, unlike acetaminophen, which poses significant liver risk.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed a low-potassium diet. Which food choice indicates to the nurse that the client understands the dietary restrictions?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse notes the client’s INR is 4.8. Which action should the nurse take? Reference Range: INR [2.0 to 3.0 for atrial fibrillation].

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client with a history of schizophrenia, and drug and alcohol abuse is admitted to the hospital for hepatitis. The nurse should contact the healthcare provider before implementing which prescription?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Which nursing intervention is most effective in determining the severity of a client’s pain?

Following a ureterolithotomy, the client has a ureteral catheter in place. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

The mental health team working with a homeless client with chronic schizophrenia establishes the treatment goal of, “Improvement in avolition prior to discharge.” Which behavior demonstrates achievement of this goal to the nurse?

Following a total thyroidectomy, the nurse plans to observe a client for complications. Which finding indicates that the client has developed a complication?

A primigravida at 40 weeks gestation is contracting every 2 minutes, and her cervix is 9 cm dilated and 100% effaced. The fetal heart rate is 120 beats/minute. The client is screaming and her husband is alarmed. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Which data warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse for a client with diabetes insipidus (DI)? Reference Range: Sodium [136 to 145 mEq/L (136 to 145 mmol/L)].

A client who had a radical neck dissection returns to the surgical unit with two surgical drains in the right side of the incision. One drain bulb is open and has minimal drainage. Which action should the nurse take to increase drainage into the drain?